Campbell-Walsh Urology, 11th Edition

PART III

Infections and Inflammation

16

Cutaneous Diseases of the External Genitalia

Richard Edward Link

Questions

1. The periodic acid–Schiff stain is used to identify what organism in scraped or touched skin preparations?
2. Pseudomonassp.
3. Candida
4. Corynebacterium minutissimum
5. Herpes simplex
6. Molluscum contagiosum
7. Oral glucocorticosteroids are often used to treat dermatologic conditions and have a duration of effect lasting:
8. 2 to 3 weeks.
9. 30 to 90 minutes.
10. 1 to 5 hours.
11. 8 to 48 hours.
12. 5 to 7 days.
13. The preferred dosage schedule for a short course of oral glucocorticosteroids used to treat a cutaneous disorder is:
14. a single morning dose.
15. a single evening dose.
16. doses in the morning and evening.
17. a dose every other day in the morning.
18. redosing every 8 hours.
19. A 12-year-old boy has a long-standing history of asthma and occasional outbreaks of erythematous, pruritic papules on his scrotum and lower extremities. Which of the following options represents a rational approach to treating this condition?
20. Long-term suppressive topical corticosteroids
21. Frequent soaking in warm water to prevent the development of lesions
22. Low-dose systemic corticosteroids
23. The frequent application of emollients
24. Application of a topical calcineurin inhibitor
25. Patch testing is a useful diagnostic test to identify:
26. psoriasis.
27. contact dermatitis.
28. erythema gangrenosum.
29. atopic dermatitis.
30. Behçet disease.
31. The North American Contact Dermatitis Group identified a series of common allergens that were associated with contact dermatitis. Which allergen was the most common offending agent in contact dermatitis cases?
32. Silver
33. Textile dyes
34. Ragweed
35. Nickel sulfate
36. Pet dander
37. A 35-year-old textile worker spills a small amount of green dye onto her left thigh. By the end of the workday, she is complaining of pain and burning over a 5-cm irregular patch of skin on her left thigh. What is the most likely diagnosis?
38. Erysipelas
39. Allergic contact dermatitis
40. Hailey-Hailey disease
41. Irritant contact dermatitis
42. Koebner phenomenon
43. Following a recent exacerbation of genital herpes, a 22-year-old man notes the development of erythematous papules and targetoid lesions on his thighs, scrotum, and oral mucosa. The best next course of action is:
44. oral antihistamines.
45. systemic corticosteroids.
46. observation.
47. oral acyclovir.
48. topical corticosteroids.
49. A 19-year-old woman is 2 days into a course of sulfonamides for an Escherichia coliurinary tract infection. She develops painful labial erosions that progress to a generalized rash with the formation of blisters. The most likely diagnosis is:
50. erythema multiforme minor.
51. Reiter syndrome.
52. Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
53. pyoderma gangrenosum.
54. Sézary syndrome.
55. A 42-year-old circumcised man has a history of widely distributed erythematous plaques—most severe on his knees, elbows, inguinal folds, and glans penis. The condition has waxed and waned since he was in his early twenties. What is an appropriate therapy during an exacerbation?
56. Topical 3% liquor carbonis detergens in 1% hydrocortisone cream
57. Oral psoralen combined with ultraviolet radiation (PUVA)
58. Systemic corticosteroids
59. Topical 5-fluorouracil cream
60. Oral azathioprine
61. A 21-year-old man presents with dysuria, blurred vision, oral ulcers, and erythematous plaques in his genitalia. He has mild soreness in his knees and ankles. He is negative for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and has no history of sexually transmitted disease. What is a likely risk factor for development of this disorder?
62. Genital herpes simplex
63. The human leukocyte antigen [HLA]-B27 haplotype
64. A history of atopic dermatitis
65. Exposure to benzene-containing chemicals
66. Family history of psoriasis
67. Which of the following statements is true about the treatment of symptomatic genital lichen planus?
68. Systemic corticosteroids can prevent the development of lesions.
69. In clinical trials, the most effective agent for treating lichen planus is systemic acitretin.
70. Systemic corticosteroids can shorten the time to clearance of existing lesions from 29 to 18 weeks.
71. Phytotherapy is the therapeutic modality of choice for treating lichen planus.
72. Metronidazole is an effective and well-established, first-line agent in the treatment of lichen planus.
73. The late stage of lichen sclerosus involving the glans penis is termed:
74. keratinizing balanoposthitis.
75. pseudoepitheliomatous, keratotic, and micaceous balanitis.
76. bowenoid papulosis.
77. balanitis xerotica obliterans.
78. Hailey-Hailey disease.
79. Which of the following cutaneous conditions has been associated with an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma?
80. Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus
81. Lichen planus
82. Psoriasis
83. Bullous pemphigoid
84. Lichen nitidus
85. An 18-year-old man has a history of seizures following an automobile accident 2 weeks ago. He was sexually active before the accident. Today, he presents with a solitary, painful erosion on the penis. What course of action is appropriate at this time?
86. Perform a urethral swab for gonorrhea and chlamydia
87. Consult with neurology to alter his antiseizure medication regimen
88. Start oral acyclovir
89. Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion
90. Start oral doxycycline
91. A 35-year-old, previously healthy woman has noted the rapid development of sharply demarcated, pruritic, red-brown plaques over a large extent of her skin surface. The plaques are particularly dense in her nasolabial folds and perianal area, and the nails are spared. What is the next step?
92. Systemic corticosteroids
93. HIV test
94. Skin culture for Malassezia furfur
95. Examination of the lesions under ultraviolet (UV) light
96. Biopsy of the lesions
97. In patients with pemphigus vulgaris, the characteristic clinical sign showing loss of epidermal cohesion is:
98. the dimple sign.
99. the Asboe-Hansen sign.
100. the Leser-Trélat sign.
101. the dimple sign.
102. the bullous blanching sign.
103. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning pemphigus vulgaris?
104. The majority of pemphigus patients have painful oral mucosal erosions.
105. Pemphigus appears to have an autoimmune pathogenesis.
106. Blisters appear to form due to loss of keratinocyte cell-cell adhesion.
107. Treatment of pemphigus relies on systemic corticosteroids.
108. Given enough time, even advanced cases of pemphigus generally resolve spontaneously without sequelae.
109. Which of the following dermatoses has an association with celiac disease?
110. Dermatitis herpetiformis
111. Hailey-Hailey disease
112. Behçet disease
113. Bullous pemphigoid
114. Psoriasis
115. Which of the following is not a vesicobullous dermatosis?
116. Hailey-Hailey disease
117. Pyoderma gangrenosum
118. Pemphigus vulgaris
119. Zoon balanitis
120. Linear IgA bullous dermatoses
121. Which agent has been shown to be effective in treating linear IgA bullous dermatoses?
122. Azathioprine
123. Cyclosporine
124. Dapsone
125. Metronidazole
126. Sulfonylurea
127. A 45-year-old woman has pruritic, foul-smelling blistering in the inframammary folds and groin. The skin findings are confluent areas of vesicles with fragile blisters. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning this condition?
128. The condition is usually worse during the summer months.
129. Intralesional corticosteroids may be effective for treatment.
130. Involvement of the vulva is common in women.
131. Wide local excision may be necessary in refractory cases.
132. Laser vaporization has been applied successfully to this condition.
133. A 35-year-old man presents with painful ulcerations in his mouth and on his penis, as well as blurred vision and a history of recurrent epididymitis. What is the likely diagnosis?
134. Behçet disease
135. Oculocutaneous aphthous ulcer syndrome
136. Epidermolysis bullosa
137. Fabry disease
138. Pyoderma gangrenosum
139. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning pyoderma gangrenosum?
140. Pyoderma gangrenosum most likely has an autoimmune mechanism of pathogenesis.
141. There is an association with collagen vascular disease.
142. Corticosteroids may play a role in management.
143. The presence of vacuolated keratinocytes in an inflammatory background is pathognomonic for this condition.
144. Which of the following cutaneous conditions has an association with borderline personality disorder?
145. Factitial dermatitis
146. "Innocent" traumatic dermatitis
147. Sézary syndrome
148. Munchausen syndrome by proxy
149. Behçet disease
150. The most common organisms causing erysipelas are:
151. dermatophytes.
152. S. aureus.
153. S. pyogenes.
154. Escherichia coli.
155. Pseudomonassp.
156. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning Fournier gangrene?
157. The mortality rate even with modern treatment may be greater than 15%.
158. Most cases of Fournier gangrene are caused by S. pyogenes.
159. Alcoholism is a significant risk factor for development of Fournier gangrene.
160. In severe cases, debridement may need to extend into the chest wall.
161. Fournier gangrene can be caused by a cutaneous, urethral, or perirectal source of infection.
162. An 18-year-old woman develops a pruritic rash over her thighs and buttocks after using a whirlpool spa. Her face and upper extremities are spared. What is the likely diagnosis?
163. Candidal intertrigo
164. Pseudomonal folliculitis
165. Contact dermatitis
166. Scabies infestation
167. Herpes simplex
168. Which of the following conditions has an association with hyperhidrosis?
169. Atopic dermatitis
170. Trichomycosis axillaris
171. Hidradenitis suppurativa
172. Psoriasis
173. Genital lichen planus
174. A patient being treated for tinea cruris has significant scrotal involvement. What alternative diagnosis does this suggest?
175. Seborrheic dermatitis
176. Erythrasma
177. Cutaneous candidiasis
178. Hidradenitis suppurativa
179. Contact dermatitis
180. Which of the following is a treatment for scabies that is contraindicated in pediatric patients?
181. Lindane
182. Dapsone
183. Permethrin
184. Ivermectin
185. Doxycycline
186. Which of the following statements concerning Bowen disease is FALSE?
187. Bowen disease and squamous cell carcinoma in situ are the same condition.
188. Bowen disease involving the glans penis is termed erythroplasia of Queyrat.
189. Bowen disease may be treated with topical imiquimod.
190. Bowen disease is associated with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11.
191. Mohs microsurgery may play a role when tissue preservation is critical.
192. Which of the following statements concerning verrucous carcinoma is TRUE?
193. Verrucous carcinoma has a high propensity to metastasize.
194. Verrucous carcinoma should not be treated with primary radiotherapy because of the risk of anaplastic transformation.
195. Verrucous carcinoma is an exceedingly rare malignancy of the genitalia.
196. Verrucous carcinoma is associated with HPV types 16 and 18.
197. Verrucous carcinoma may grow very rapidly and destroy local tissue.
198. What is the most common site of presentation for Kaposi sarcoma in immunocompetent individuals?
199. Chest
200. Face
201. Lower extremities
202. Genitalia
203. Palms
204. The following malignancy has been found concurrently in lesions of pseudoepitheliomatous, keratotic, and micaceous balanitis:
205. Basal cell carcinoma
206. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
207. Squamous cell carcinoma
208. Verrucous carcinoma
209. Kaposi sarcoma
210. Which of the following statements about extramammary Paget disease (EPD) is FALSE?
211. EPD is an adenocarcinoma.
212. EPD is associated with another underlying malignancy in more than 60% of cases.
213. EPD has been associated with malignancies of the urethra and bladder.
214. EPD lesions show vacuolated Paget cells on histopathologic exam.
215. The vulva is the most common genital site involved in women.
216. Patients with cutaneous T-cell lymphoma who develop hematologic involvement are given the diagnosis of:
217. lymphoid papulosis.
218. mycosis fungoides.
219. pagetoid reticulosis.
220. Sézary syndrome.
221. Fabry disease.
222. Which of the following conditions has the most in common histologically with pearly penile papules?
223. Psoriasis
224. Tuberous sclerosis
225. Molluscum contagiosum
226. Herpes simplex
227. The most effective treatment for Zoon balanitis is:
228. topical 5-fluorouracil.
229. topical corticosteroids.
230. circumcision.
231. laser therapy.
232. topical calcineurin inhibitors.
233. Skin tags are also termed:
234. fibrofolliculomas.
235. angiokeratomas.
236. hamartomas.
237. acrochordons.
238. dermatofibromas.
239. The Leser-Trélat syndrome refers to:
240. the rapid progression of lichen planus associated with the HLA-B27 haplotype.
241. an abrupt increase in the size and number of seborrheic keratoses, suggesting internal malignancy.
242. the combination of hand, foot, and genital psoriasis.
243. the development of brown macules on the genitalia, unrelated to sun exposure.
244. the combination of oral and genital ulcers often seen in Behçet disease.

Pathology

1. A 70-year-old uncircumcised man has noted an erythematous macular lesion on his glans at the corona. The pathology report of the biopsy (depicted in Figures 16-1A and B) reads plasma cell infiltrate consistent with Zoon balanitis. The next step in management is:

FIGURE 16-1 (From Bostwick DG, Cheng L. Urologic surgical pathology. 3rd ed. St. Louis: Saunders; 2014.)

1. ask the pathologist if these are CD4 cells consistent with exposure to HIV.
2. laser fulguration.
3. ask the pathologist if he or she looked for an associated squamous cell carcinoma.
4. circumcision.
5. observation.

Answers

1. b. Candida.To identify cutaneous fungi, such as dermatophytes and Candida species, PAS staining may be applied to scraped or touched skin specimens.
2. d. 8 to 48 hours.Oral glucocorticosteroids (GCS) are absorbed in the jejunum with peak plasma concentrations occurring in 30 to 90 minutes. Despite short plasma half-lives of 1 to 5 hours, the duration of effect of GCS is between 8 and 48 hours, depending on the agent.
3. a. A single morning dose.For short-term (≤ 3 weeks) treatment of dermatologic conditions such as allergic contact dermatitis, a single morning dose of oral glucocorticosteroids is given to minimize suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.
4. d. The frequent application of emollients.The condition described is atopic dermatitis (AD or eczema), which is associated with susceptibility to irritants and proteins, as well as the tendency to develop asthma and allergic rhinitis. Intense pruritus is the hallmark of AD, and controlling the patient's urge to scratch is critical for successful treatment. Removal of various "trigger factors" from the environment (such as chemicals, detergents, and household dust mites) may be beneficial in some cases. The mainstay of treatment for AD includes gentle cleaning with nonalkali soaps and the frequent use of emollients.
5. b. Contact dermatitis.Patch testing is a simple technique of exposing an area of skin to a variety of potential allergens in a grid template. Generally performed by dermatologists, patch testing can help to confirm the diagnosis of allergic contact dermatitis and the allergen involved.
6. d. Nickel sulfate.In 2003, the North American Contact Dermatitis Group (NACDG) reported a long list of common allergens implicated in allergic contact dermatitis based on patch testing results. The most common sensitizing allergen identified was nickel sulfate, which is a common component of costume jewelry and belt buckles.
7. d. Irritant contact dermatitis.Irritant contact dermatitis results from a direct cytotoxic effect of an irritant chemical touching the skin and is responsible for approximately 80% of contact dermatitis cases. Occupational exposure is also common. Examples of offending agents include soaps, metal salts, acid- or alkali-containing compounds, and industrial solvents.
8. c. Observation. Erythema multiforme (EM) minor is an acute, self-limited skin disease characterized by the abrupt onset of symmetrical fixed red papules that may evolve into target lesions. The majority of cases are precipitated by herpesvirus type I and II,with herpetic lesions usually preceding the development of target lesions by 10 to 14 days. Although continuous suppressive acyclovir may prevent EM episodes in patients with herpes infection, administration of the drug after development of target lesions is of no benefit. With observation alone, the natural history of EM minor is spontaneous resolution after several weeks without sequelae, although recurrences are common.
9. c. Stevens-Johnson syndrome.Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a life-threatening severe allergic reaction with features similar to extensive skin burns. A vast array of inciting factors has been implicated in the development of SJS, with drug exposures being the most commonly identified. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents are the most frequent offending agents, followed by sulfonamides, tetracycline, penicillin, doxycycline, and anticonvulsants.
10. a. Topical 3% liquor carbonis detergens in 1% hydrocortisone cream.Psoriasis is a papulosquamous disorder affecting up to 2% of the population with a relapsing and remitting course. For genital psoriasis, the mainstay of therapy is the use of low-potency topical corticosteroid creams for short courses. Photochemotherapy combining an ingested psoralen with ultraviolet radiation (PUVA) has been used extensively to treat psoriasis. However, a dose-dependent increase in the risk of genital squamous cell carcinoma has been associated with high-dose PUVA therapy for psoriasis elsewhere on the body. Genital shielding during PUVA therapy is strongly recommended; therefore this modality is contraindicated for treating psoriatic lesions localized to genital skin.
11. b. The HLA-B27 haplotype. Reiter syndrome is a syndrome composed of urethritis, arthritis, ocular findings, oral ulcers and skin lesions.It is generally preceded by an episode of either urethritis (Chlamydia, Gonococcus) or gastrointestinal infection (Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, Neisseria, or Ureaplasma species) and is more common in HIV- positive patients. There is a strong genetic association with the HLA-B27 haplotype.
12. c. Systemic corticosteroids can shorten the time to clearance of existing lesions from 29 to 18 weeks.Although bothersome pruritus is common with lichen planus (LP), asymptomatic lesions on the genitalia do not require treatment. The primary modality of treatment for symptomatic lesions is topical corticosteroids, although for severe cases, systemic corticosteroids have been shown to shorten the time course to clearance of LP lesions from 29 to 18 weeks.
13. d. Balanitis xerotica obliterans.Lichen sclerosis (LS) is a scarring disorder, with a predilection for the external genitalia of both sexes, characterized by tissue pallor, loss of architecture, and hyperkeratosis. The late stage of this disease is called balanitis xerotica obliterans, which can involve the penile urethra and result in troublesome urethral stricture disease.
14. a. Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus.Despite the similarities in name, LS shares little in common with lichen planus and lichen nitidus other than pruritus and a predilection for the genital region. Another critical distinction is that LS has been associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis, particularly those variants not associated with human papillomavirus, and may represent a premalignant condition. Biopsy is worthwhile both to confirm the diagnosis and to exclude malignant change.
15. b. Consult with neurology to alter his antiseizure medication regimen.The association of epileptic seizures and a solitary painful genital lesion is suspicious for a diagnosis of Behçet disease (BD). Other causes for genital ulceration, however, including aphthous ulcers, syphilis, herpes simplex, and chancroid, must be considered before a diagnosis of BD is made. In this case, the patient's neurologic issues should take priority over treatment for his genital ulcer.
16. b. HIV test.Seborrheic dermatitis (SD) is a common skin disease characterized by the presence of sharply demarcated, pink-yellow to red-brown plaques with a flaky scale. Particularly in immunosuppressed individuals, SD may involve a significant proportion of the body surface area. Extensive and/or severe SD should raise concerns for possible underlying HIV infection.
17. b. The Asboe-Hansen sign.The loss of epidermal cohesion seen in pemphigus vulgaris leads to the characteristic Asboe-Hansen sign: spreading of fluid under the adjacent normal-appearing skin away from the direction of pressure on a blister.
18. e. Given enough time, even advanced cases of pemphigus generally resolve spontaneously without sequelae.Severe cases of pemphigus vulgaris without appropriate treatment may be fatal because of the loss of the epidermal barrier function of large areas of affected skin. Treatment usually depends on systemic corticosteroids, although minimization of steroid dose is an important goal to limit side effects. The addition of immunosuppressive agents, such as azathioprine and cyclophosphamide, may be beneficial because of their corticosteroid-sparing effect.
19. a. Dermatitis herpetiformis.Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH) is a cutaneous manifestation of celiac disease and is generally associated with gluten sensitivity. Diagnosis can be confirmed by biopsy and direct immunofluorescence, which shows a granular pattern of IgA deposition at the basement membrane. Treatment includes the use of dapsone and a strict gluten-restricted diet.
20. b. Pyoderma gangrenosum. Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is an ulcerative skin disease associated with systemic illnesses, including inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis, collagen vascular disease, and myeloproliferative disorders.The classic morphologic presentation of PG is painful cutaneous and mucous membrane ulceration, often with extensive loss of tissue and a purulent base.
21. c. Dapsone.Characteristic clinical features of linear IgA bullous dermatosis (LABD) include vesicles and bullae arranged in a combination of circumferential and linear orientations. Treatment with either sulfapyridine or dapsone is usually effective in controlling LABD, and long-term spontaneous remission rates of 30% to 60% have been described.
22. c. Involvement of the vulva is common in women.Hailey-Hailey disease (HH) is an autosomal dominant blistering dermatosis that has a predilection for the intertriginous areas, including the groin and perianal region. Symptoms include an unfortunate combination of pruritus, pain, and a foul odor. Because heat and sweating exacerbate the condition, HH tends to worsen during the summer months. In women, disease in the inframammary folds is common, although vulvar disease is unusual. For disease resistant to medical therapy, wide excision and skin grafting have been effective, as have local ablative techniques such as dermabrasion and laser vaporization.
23. a. Behçet disease. When oral and genital aphthous ulcers are coexistent, the clinician should consider the diagnosis of BD.BD is a generalized relapsing and remitting ulcerative mucocutaneous disease that likely involves a genetic predisposition and an autoimmune mode of pathogenesis. Affected individuals may also suffer from epididymitis, thrombophlebitis, aneurysms, and gastrointestinal, neurologic, and arthritic problems.
24. d. The presence of vacuolated keratinocytes in an inflammatory background is pathognomonic for this condition.Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is an ulcerative skin disease associated with systemic illnesses, including inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis, collagen vascular disease, and myeloproliferative disorders. It most commonly affects women between the second and fifth decade of life and likely has an autoimmune pathogenesis, given its association with other autoimmune diseases. As is the case in Behçet disease, no specific diagnostic laboratory test or histopathologic feature is pathognomonic for PG, although a history of underlying systemic disease may raise suspicion.
25. a. Factitial dermatitis.Factitial dermatitis is a psychocutaneous disorder in which the individual self-inflicts cutaneous lesions, usually for an unconscious motive. An association between factitial dermatitis and borderline personality disorder appears to exist.
26. c. S. pyogenes.Erysipelas is a superficial bacterial skin infection limited to the dermis with lymphatic involvement. In contrast to the cutaneous lesion of cellulitis, erysipelas generally has a raised and distinct border at the interface with normal skin. The causative organism is usually S. pyogenes.
27. b. Most cases of Fournier gangrene are caused by S. pyogenes.Fournier gangrene (FG) is a potentially life-threatening progressive infection of the perineum and genitalia. In the genital region, most cases of FG are caused by mixed bacterial flora, which include gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria.
28. b. Pseudomonal folliculitis.Folliculitis is a common disorder characterized by perifollicular pustules on an erythematous base. It occurs most frequently in heavily hair-bearing areas such as the scalp, beard, axilla, groin, and buttocks and can be exacerbated by local trauma from shaving, rubbing, or clothing irritation. Folliculitis has also been associated with the use of contaminated hot tubs and swimming pools, with the offending organism usually Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
29. b. Trichomycosis axillaris.Trichomycosis axillaris (TA) is a superficial bacterial infection of axillary and pubic hair caused by Corynebacterium, which is associated with hyperhidrosis. Shaving can provide immediate improvement, and antibacterial soaps may prevent further infection. For pubic TA, clindamycin gel, bacitracin, and oral erythromycin have also proven effective.
30. c. Cutaneous candidiasis. Tinea cruris is the term given to dermatophyte infection of the groin and genital area and is commonly known as "jock itch." The inner thighs and inguinal region are the most commonly affected areas, and the scrotum and penis are usually spared in men.Significant scrotal involvement should raise suspicion for cutaneous candidiasis as an alternative diagnosis.
31. a. Lindane.As in the case of pediculosis pubis, the treatment of choice for scabies is 5% permethrin cream applied to the entire body overnight, with a second application 1 week later. An alternative scabicide, lindane, is not favored because of both central nervous system (CNS) toxicity in children and a rising rate of resistance among mites.
32. d. Bowen disease is associated with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11.Bowen disease occurring on the mucosal surfaces of the male genitalia is referred to as erythroplasia of Queyrat. In that location, coinfection with HPV type 8, 16, 39, and 51 has been identified. In contrast, the variant of squamous cell carcinoma termed "verrucous carcinoma" has been associated with HPV type 6 and 11 infection but not with the more classically oncogenic type 16 and 18.
33. b. Verrucous carcinoma should not be treated with primary radiotherapy because of the risk of anaplastic transformation. Verrucous carcinoma (VC) is a slow-growing, locally aggressive, exophytic, low-grade variant of squamous cell carcinoma that has little metastatic potential.It most commonly occurs in uncircumcised men on the glans or prepuce, although similar lesions can be found on the vulva, vagina cervix, or anus. Treatment is preferably by local excision. Primary radiotherapy is relatively contraindicated because of the potential for anaplastic transformation with a subsequent increase in metastatic potential.
34. c. Lower extremities.Kaposi sarcoma (KS) in immunocompetent individuals presents as slowly growing, blue-red pigmented macules on the lower extremities. Although oral and gastrointestinal lesions may occur, the genitalia are seldom involved. This is in contrast to the case with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), in which a solitary genital lesion may be the first manifestation of KS. The clinical features of KS in AIDS patients are diverse, ranging from a single lesion to disseminated cutaneous and visceral disease.
35. d. Verrucous carcinoma.Pseudoepitheliomatous, keratotic, and micaceous balanitis (PEKMB) is a rare entity characterized by the development of a thick, hyperkeratotic plaque on the glans penis of older men. There remains controversy as to whether PEKMB is a premalignant condition. PEKMB was originally thought to be a purely benign process, although several case reports have documented the presence of concurrent verrucous carcinoma associated with this lesion.
36. b. EPD is associated with another underlying malignancy in more than 60% of cases. Extramammary Paget disease (EPD) is an uncommon intraepithelial adenocarcinoma of sites bearing apocrine glands. There is an important association between EPD and another underlying malignancy in 10% to 30% of cases.In the male, associations of urethral, bladder, rectal, and apocrine malignancies with EPD have been described.
37. d. Sézary syndrome.Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) represents a group of related neoplasms derived from T cells that home to the skin. CTCL generally presents with pruritus, which must be differentiated from a variety of benign dermatoses, including psoriasis, eczema, superficial fungal infections, and drug reactions. Patients may subsequently develop hematologic involvement (termed Sézary syndrome) and cutaneous plaques, erosions, ulcers, or frank skin tumors.
38. b. Tuberous sclerosis. Pearly penile papules (PPP) are white, dome-shaped, closely spaced, small papules located on the glans penis. Histologically, these lesions are angiofibromas similar to the lesions seen on the face in tuberous sclerosis.
39. c. Circumcision.Zoon balanitis, also called plasma cell balanitis, occurs in uncircumcised men from the third decade onward. Squamous cell carcinoma and extramammary Paget disease should be excluded, often by biopsy. Circumcision appears to be proof against development of the disease and can be performed to cure the majority of cases. For patients averse to circumcision, topical corticosteroids may provide symptomatic relief, and laser therapy may also have a role.
40. d. Acrochordons.Skin tags (acrochordons, fibroepithelial polyps) are soft, skin-colored, pedunculated lesions that can be present anywhere on the body. It is important to distinguish these lesions from the hamartomatous skin lesions (multiple fibrofolliculomas) associated with Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome, which are histologically distinct from common skin tags.
41. b. An abrupt increase in the size and number of seborrheic keratoses, suggesting internal malignancy. The presence of brown macules unrelated to sun exposure suggests a diagnosis of seborrheic keratoses (SK).This condition may commonly involve the genitalia but generally spares the mucous membranes, palms, and soles of the feet. An abrupt increase in the size and number of multiple seborrheic keratoses (SK) has been termed Leser-Trélat syndrome and has been implicated as a cutaneous marker of internal malignancy. The HLA-B27 haplotype is associated with Reiter syndrome, not rapidly progressive lichen planus.

Pathology

1. d. Circumcision.The patient has Zoon balanitis. The biopsy shows reactive epithelial changes with a plasma cell infiltrate into the dermis. Although the disease can be treated with immune modulators, these patients respond best to circumcision.

Chapter review

1. Topical application of steroids may result in systemic absorption resulting in significant side effects.
2. The majority of cases of erythema multiforme are precipitated by herpesvirus type I and II, with the herpetic lesions usually preceding the development of the target lesions by 2 weeks.
3. The major form of erythema multiforme is called Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which has a protracted course of 4 to 6 weeks and may have a mortality approaching 30%. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents, sulfonamides, tetracyclines, penicillin, doxycycline, and anticonvulsants are the most common offending agents.
4. Reiter syndrome comprises urethritis, arthritis, ocular findings (conjunctivitis), oral ulcers, and skin lesions. It is generally preceded by an episode of urethritis or a gastrointestinal infection. It is more common in HIV-positive patients. It is associated with HLA-B27 haplotype.
5. The triad of clinical features in Behçet syndrome consists of mucocutaneous lesions of the oral cavity, genitalia, and uveitis. The ulcers are painful.
6. Hidradenitis suppurativa is an epithelial disorder of hair follicles that occurs in the apocrine gland–bearing skin, which results in a marked inflammatory response with formation of abscesses and sinus tracks. Bacterial infection does not appear to be the primary initiator. Rupture of the follicular contents—bacteria and keratin—into the dermis causes a marked inflammatory response.
7. Ecthyma gangrenosum is a result of pseudomonal septicemia and may result in gangrenous ulcers.
8. Dermatophytes are fungi of three genera: Trichophyton, Microsporum,and Epidermophyton. Tinea cruris, an infection of the groin and genital skin, may be caused by one of these fungi. Postinflammatory hyperpigmentation occurs with this disease and may not indicate an active infection.
9. Bowenoid papulosis consists of multiple small erythematous papules and is associated with HPV type 16.
10. Angiokeratomas of Fordyce are vascular ectasias of dermal blood vessels. They are 1- to 2-mm red or purple papules and may be the source of troublesome scrotal bleeding.
11. CIS of the penis rarely progresses to invasive disease.
12. Whether Kaposi sarcoma is a neoplastic or hyperplastic process is debated. When it is associated with organ transplantation, alteration of the immunosuppressive regimen may result in resolution.
13. Epidermoid cysts are commonly found in the scrotum.
14. Extensive and/or severe seborrheic dermatitis should raise concerns for possible underlying HIV infection.
15. Pyoderma gangrenosum is an ulcerative skin disease associated with systemic illnesses, including inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis, collagen vascular disease, and myeloproliferative disorders.
16. In tinea cruris, the inner thighs and inguinal region are the most commonly affected areas, and the scrotum and penis are usually spared in men.
17. Extramammary Paget disease (EPD) is an uncommon intraepithelial adenocarcinoma of sites bearing apocrine glands. There is an important association between EPD and another underlying malignancy in 10% to 30% of cases.