Campbell-Walsh Urology, 11th Edition

PART VI

Male Genitalia

35

Surgery of Testicular Tumors

Kevin R. Rice; Clint Cary; Timothy A. Masterson; Richard S. Foster

Questions

  1. The following nerve is at risk for injury during radical orchiectomy:
  2. The genitofemoral nerve.
  3. The ilioinguinal nerve.
  4. The obturator nerve.
  5. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve.
  6. The pudendal nerve.
  7. Patients should NOT be considered for partial orchiectomy if they possess any of the following EXCEPT:
  8. A polar tumor > 2 cm in greatest dimension.
  9. A normal contralateral testicle.
  10. Hypogonadism.
  11. Suspicion for benign tumor.
  12. Infertility.
  13. All of the following are part of clinical staging for testicular cancer EXCEPT:
  14. Radical orchiectomy.
  15. Chest radiograph.
  16. Whole-body positron emission tomography (PET) scan.
  17. Serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH).
  18. Contrasted computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
  19. The incidence of perioperative acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in patients with prior receipt of bleomycin can be minimized by:
  20. Avoidance of the Trendelenburg position.
  21. Keeping the FiO2as low as possible.
  22. Short operating time.
  23. Minimization of intraoperative and perioperative fluid resuscitation.
  24. Both b and d.
  25. Performing the aortic split-and-roll before that of the inferior vena cava (IVC):
  26. Allows prospective identification of right accessory lower pole renal arteries not identified on preoperative imaging.
  27. Facilitates identification of right-sided postganglionic sympathetic nerves as they cross over the aorta.
  28. Minimizes risk of left ureteral injury.
  29. Increases risk if injury to the inferior mesenteric artery.
  30. Should never be performed.
  31. The ureter is typically located:
  32. Anterior to the ipsilateral renal artery.
  33. Anterior to the ipsilateral retroperitoneal nodal packet.
  34. Posterior to the ipsilateral gonadal vein adjacent to the lower pole of the ipsilateral kidney.
  35. Anterior to the ipsilateral gonadal vein adjacent to the lower pole of the ipsilateral kidney.
  36. Posterior to the ipsilateral common iliac artery.
  37. Which of the following anatomic structures demonstrates the most predictable and constant anatomy?
  38. The postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers
  39. The lumbar arteries
  40. The lumbar veins
  41. The number of nodes in each retroperitoneal packet
  42. The lymphatic vessels
  43. The cisterna chylae is located:
  44. Immediately posterolateral to the IVC, just cephalad to the right renal artery.
  45. Immediately posterolateral to the IVC, just inferior to the right renal artery.
  46. Immediately posterolateral to the aorta, just cephalad to the left renal artery.
  47. Immediately posterolateral to the aorta, just inferior to the left renal artery.
  48. Immediately posteromedial to the aorta, just cephalad to the right renal artery.
  49. The most common auxiliary procedure required to ensure complete resection of residual tumor at postchemotherapy (PC)-RPLND is:
  50. IVC resection.
  51. Retrocrural resection.
  52. Nephrectomy.
  53. Pelvic resection.
  54. Aortic resection.
  55. All of the following are associated with an increased risk of nephrectomy EXCEPT:
  56. Left-sided primary testicular tumor.
  57. Prior receipt of salvage chemotherapy.
  58. Larger retroperitoneal mass size.
  59. Presence of ipsilateral accessory lower pole renal arteries.
  60. Elevated serum tumor markers at PC-RPLND.
  61. The histology encountered most often at resection of residual hepatic lesions after chemotherapy is:
  62. Viable malignancy.
  63. Teratoma.
  64. Fibrosis/necrosis.
  65. Somatic-type malignancy.
  66. Hemangioma.
  67. Which of the following are associated with an increased risk of pelvic germ cell tumor (GCT) metastases?
  68. Higher initial clinical stage
  69. Extragonadal primary GCT
  70. Prior pelvic surgery
  71. Congenital absence of the vasa deferentia
  72. a, b, c
  73. Which of the following is TRUE?
  74. Patients with a PET-negative residual mass after induction chemotherapy for nonseminomatous GCT (NSGCT) can be safely observed.
  75. Performing PC-RPLND in patients with a clinical complete remission (no mass larger than 1 cm) of metastatic disease to induction chemotherapy has been shown to decrease recurrences.
  76. When PC-RPLND is performed in patients demonstrating complete clinical remission to induction chemotherapy, approximately 20% of specimens demonstrate residual microscopic teratoma or cancer.
  77. It is safe to observe patients experiencing a clinical complete remission if they have teratoma-negative primary tumors, but not if there is teratoma in the primary tumor.
  78. All International Germ Cell Cancer Collaborative Group (IGCCCG) intermediate- and poor-risk patients should undergo PC-RPLND, regardless of response to chemotherapy.
  79. With regard to the use of postoperative adjuvant cisplatin-based chemotherapy in patients demonstrating pathologic stage IIA-B disease at primary RPLND, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
  80. It spares one to two cycles of chemotherapy for those patients destined to recur on postoperative observation.
  81. It nearly eliminates postoperative recurrences.
  82. It improves overall and cancer-specific survival.
  83. It results in overtreatment of 50% to 70% of patients if given to all patients.
  84. It is typically given in two cycles.
  85. Which of the following characteristics has been associated with increased recurrence rate when teratoma is encountered at PC-RPLND?
  86. Large residual mass size
  87. Presence of somatic type malignancy
  88. Mediastinal primary GCT
  89. Presence of immature teratoma
  90. a, b, c
  91. Which of the following factors have been associated with poorer prognosis when viable GCT is encountered at PC-RPLND?
  92. Incomplete resection
  93. > 10% viable GCT in resection specimen
  94. IGCCCG intermediate or poor risk status
  95. Prior receipt of salvage chemotherapy
  96. All of the above
  97. Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit from two cycles of adjuvant chemotherapy after PC-RPLND?
  98. 32-year-old male who received BEPx4 with persistently elevated AFP that normalized with salvage VeIPx4, but has a 6-cm interaortocaval residual mass. PC-RPLND reveals viable yolk sac tumor in 50% of the resection specimen.
  99. 25-year-old male with a history of IGCCCG poor-risk NSGCT who after completing BEPx4 has a 15-cm para-aortic mass resected demonstrating teratoma and fibrosis.
  100. 28-year-old male with a 5-cm interaortocaval mass after completion of BEPx3 for IGCCCG good-risk disease. At PC-RPLND, viable embryonal cell carcinoma makes up 30% of his specimen, with the remainder being teratoma and a small amount of fibrosis.
  101. 31-year-old male with history of clinical stage IIC good-risk NSGCT who has a 5-cm residual mass after EPx4. PC-RPLND reveals teratoma with enteric-type adenocarcinoma.
  102. 27-year-old male who experienced a clinical CR of a 5 cm left para-aortic mass to BEPx3 approximately 5 years ago. He demonstrates an AFP of 150 on follow-up, and CT scan reveals a 7-cm left para-aortic recurrence. Resection reveals 100% viable yolk sac tumor. AFP normalizes postoperatively.
  103. A patient has an isolated resectable residual retroperitoneal mass after induction chemotherapy without radiographic evidence of disease outside the retroperitoneum, but tumor markers have failed to normalize. Which of the following are reasonable indications for the consideration of desperation RPLND?
  104. Declining or plateauing AFP after induction chemotherapy
  105. Slowly rising AFP after a complete serologic response to induction chemotherapy
  106. All potentially curative chemotherapeutic options have been exhausted
  107. Persistently rising serum tumor markers (STMs) through induction chemotherapy
  108. a, b, c
  109. Reoperative RPLND is thought to indicate a technical failure at prior RPLND. All of the following findings supportive of this hypothesis have been reported in the literature EXCEPT:
  110. The primary landing zone is the most common site of retroperitoneal recurrence.
  111. Ipsilateral pelvic recurrences are common.
  112. Incomplete ipsilateral lumbar vessel ligation encountered at reoperative RPLND has been associated with ipsilateral infield recurrence.
  113. Unresected ipsilateral gonadal vessels are frequently encountered at reoperative RPLND.
  114. The retroaortic and retrocaval regions are frequent sites of recurrence.
  115. All of the following are true regarding late relapse of GCT EXCEPT:
  116. Yolk sac tumor is the most common viable histology encountered.
  117. First-line treatment is generally systemic chemotherapy followed by consolidative PC-RPLND.
  118. Patients who are chemotherapy-naïve demonstrate superior survival outcomes.
  119. GCT with somatic-type malignancy is seen with increased frequency in this population.
  120. The retroperitoneum is the most common site of late relapse.
  121. What percentage of patients presenting with GCT have abnormal parameters on semen analysis?
  122. < 10%
  123. 20% to 60%
  124. 70% to 80%
  125. > 90%
  126. Which processes are required to ensure antegrade ejaculation of sperm-containing semen?
  127. Seminal emission through vasa deferentia
  128. Closure of the bladder neck
  129. Contraction of the bulbospongiosis muscles
  130. Penile erection
  131. a, b, c
  132. All of the following interventions have demonstrated efficacy in managing chylous ascites EXCEPT:
  133. Medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) diet.
  134. Total parenteral nutrition.
  135. Subcutaneous octreotide.
  136. Limiting fat intake preoperatively.
  137. Placement of peritoneovenous shunt.
  138. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for neurologic compromise due to spinal ischemia?
  139. 32-year-old male undergoing resection of left para-aortic mass with apparent aortic invasion who will most likely require resection of the infrahilar aorta and tube graft reconstruction.
  140. 29-year-old male with large-volume left para-aortic and interaortocaval masses that extend through the retrocrural region into the middle visceral mediastinum.
  141. 27-year-old male with a completed occluded IVC due to large interaortocaval, retrocaval, and right paracaval masses with a tumor thrombus up the inferior border of the right renal vein.
  142. 31-year-old male with a large infrarenal left para-aortic mass that is found to be invading the L2 vertebral foramina during resection.

Answers

  1. b. The ilioinguinal nerve.The ilioinguinal nerve will be encountered immediately on opening the external oblique fascia and entering the inguinal canal. It courses parallel to the spermatic cord along the cephalad aspect of its anterior surface. Care should be taken to preserve this structure in order to prevent postoperative numbness and paresthesia of the ipsilateral medial thigh and scrotum.
  2. d. Suspicion for benign tumor.For obvious reasons, patients who are suspected to have a benign tumor are prime candidates for partial orchiectomy. Patients with larger tumors in the setting of normal contralateral testicle should be managed with radical orchiectomy as they will not likely suffer permanent postoperative infertility or hypogonadism. In addition, the benefits of partial orchiectomy with the goal of saving poorly functioning testicular parenchyma in a patient with baseline infertility and/or hypogonadism are most likely outweighed by the potential for incomplete resection of tumor and/or ipsilateral testicular recurrence.
  3. c. Whole-body positron emission tomography (PET) scan.Testicular germ cell tumor patients are clinically staged with radical orchiectomy (T stage), chest imaging, a CT scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen and pelvis (N and M stages), and postorchiectomy serum tumor markers (S stage). PET scans have no role in the clinical staging of seminomas or nonseminomas. PET scans do have a role in evaluating postchemotherapy residual masses in cases of pure seminoma.
  4. e. Both b and d.Postoperative ARDS in patients with prior receipt of bleomycin is rare but most commonly encountered in patients having received four courses of bleomycin with significant pulmonary tumor burden. The two intraoperative factors that have been associated with an increased risk of developing postoperative ARDS have been (1) exposure to high FiO2 and (2) high-volume administration of intravenous fluids and blood products. Anesthesiologists should be made aware of these risk factors.
  5. a. Allows prospective identification of right accessory lower pole renal arteries not identified on preoperative imaging.The advantage of splitting of the aorta before the IVC is that it allows for the prospective identification of right accessory lower pole renal arteries not identified on preoperative imaging. Such vessels may be inadvertently divided if the IVC split is performed first. This can lead to significant blood loss and renal parenchymal loss. The disadvantage of splitting of the aorta first is inadvertent division of postganglionic sympathetic fibers involved in ejaculation. This can be minimized by stopping the aortic split at the inferior mesenteric artery and prospectively identifying the sympathetic efferents before continuing the split caudally.
  6. c. Posterior to the ipsilateral gonadal vein adjacent to the lower pole of the ipsilateral kidneyThe ureters provide the anatomic landmark for the lateral border of dissection for the para-aortic and paracaval lymph node packets. However, the ureters are vulnerable to injury if not prospectively identified. The ureter can be easily found at the inferior border of the ipsilateral kidney where it typically passes behind the ipsilateral gonadal vein. The ureter passes anterior to the ipsilateral common iliac artery as it descends into the pelvis.
  7. b. The lumbar arteriesThere are three paired lumbar arteries located between the renal hilum and the aortic bifurcation in nearly all patients. The only subtle anomaly commonly encountered with aortic lumbars is that the paired lumbars may exit the aorta through a short common trunk before bifurcating, a variant that can result in significant blood loss if not identified before these structures are ligated and divided. Lumbar vein anatomy is high variable, with these structures varying widely in location and caliber. While the number of postganglionic sympathetic roots in the field of retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND) tends to be relatively constant at four per side, the exact locations, paths, and patterns of fusion to adjacent roots is highly variable. Studies on lymph node counts have universally reported high standards of deviation and interquartile ranges.
  8. e. Immediately posteromedial to the aorta just cephalad to the right renal artery.Failure to meticulously ligate large-caliber lymphatics in the region of the cisterna chylae can predispose patients to troublesome postoperative chylous ascites. Thus, use of clips and/or ties at the superior extent of the interaortocaval and para-aortic packets as well as during retrocrural dissections is advised.
  9. c. Nephrectomy.
  10. d. Presence of ipsilateral accessory lower pole renal arteries.Reported nephrectomy rates at PC-RPLND have ranged from 5% to 31%. Increased nephrectomy rates have been reported for patients undergoing salvage RPLND, desperation RPLND, reoperative RPLND, and resection of late relapse. In addition, large retroperitoneal mass size and left-sided primary tumors are associated with increased rates of nephrectomy.
  11. c. Fibrosis/necrosisApproximately three quarters of residual hepatic lesions after chemotherapy will demonstrate fibrosis/necrosis only at resection. There is a 94% concordance between retroperitoneal and hepatic fibrosis/necrosis. Thus, observation should be considered in patients with retroperitoneal necrosis and residual hepatic lesions that would require a potentially morbid resection.
  12. e. a, b, cAlthough the pelvis is the caudal extension of the retroperitoneum, it is not a common site of GCT metastases. Patients with high-volume retroperitoneal disease are thought to be at increased risk of pelvic metastases due to retrograde spread of tumor down the iliac lymphatic chains. A truly extragonadal primary GCT has less predictable lymphatic spread than testicular primaries; thus, pelvic spread seems to occur more often in these patients. Prior pelvic surgery likely leads to pelvic spread of disease by disrupting normal lymphatic drainage.
  13. c. When PC-RPLND is performed in patients demonstrating complete clinical remission to induction chemotherapy, approximately 20% of specimens demonstrate residual microscopic teratoma or cancer.Investigators at Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center reported that approximately 20% of patients with postchemotherapy residual masses smaller than 1 cm demonstrated teratoma or viable GCT at resection, leading to a recommendation to perform PC-RPLND in all patients with history of retroperitoneal masses regardless of response to chemotherapy. To date, no study has demonstrated that this practice is associated with any improvement in recurrence-free or cancer-specific survival. Thus, observation is still considered a standard management, as this strategy has been associated with 97% to 100% cancer-specific survival. There is no role for PET scan in the assessment of postchemotherapy masses in nonseminomas.
  14. c. Improves overall and cancer-specific survival.Adjuvant chemotherapy for pathologic stage IIA-B disease encountered at primary RPLND consists of two cycles of bleomycin, etoposide, and cisplatin (BEP) or two cycles of etoposide and cisplatin (EP). This nearly eliminates the risk of recurrence but has no effect on cancer-specific survival, which approaches 100% whether chemotherapy is administered in the adjuvant setting or reserved for patients who experience relapse. Patients who relapse will require full induction chemotherapy consisting of BEPx3 or EPx4. When pathologic stage IIA-B patients are observed after primary RPLND, approximately 30% to 50% of patients relapse.
  15. e. a, b, c.Patients with high-volume teratoma, somatic-type malignancy, and mediastinal primary GCT disease have a higher risk of postoperative recurrence. Although once thought to be a marker of more aggressive behavior, immature teratoma has demonstrated no decrement in survival outcomes compared with mature teratoma.
  16. e. All of the above.In a large multicenter review by Fizazi and colleagues, incomplete resection, proportion of viable GCT in resection specimen, and IGCCCG risk status were used to classify patients into three risk categories that predicted survival outcomes. When evaluating patients with viable GCT at PC-RPLND, prior receipt of salvage chemotherapy has consistently been associated with significantly poorer survival outcomes.
  17. c. 28-year-old male with a 5-cm interaortocaval mass after completion of BEPx3 for IGCCCG good-risk disease. At PC-RPLND viable embryonal cell carcinoma makes up 30% of his specimen, with the remainder being teratoma and a small amount of fibrosisPatients having received salvage chemotherapy who demonstrate viable GCT at PC-RPLND (option a), those demonstrating teratoma only at PC-RPLND (option b), and those demonstrating transformation to somatic-type malignancy (option d) have not been shown to benefit from adjuvant chemotherapy. In addition, patients with prior receipt of chemotherapy who experience late relapse do not often benefit from chemotherapy. The patient in option c would fall into the intermediate risk group for viable GCT encountered at PC-RPLND described by Fizazi and colleagues and, thus, would be a prime candidate for adjuvant cisplatin-based chemotherapy.
  18. e. a, b, c.Investigators at Indiana University reported a 53.9% cancer-specific survival rate at a median follow-up of 6 years when the criteria outlined in a-c were used to select patients to undergo desperation PC-RPLND. A patient with persistently rising STMs during chemotherapy should receive either standard or high-dose salvage chemotherapy.
  19. b. Ipsilateral pelvic recurrences are common.Reoperative RPLND indicates a technical failure at prior RPLND in the majority of cases. Several reviews of reoperative experiences at high-volume centers have revealed that primary landing zone recurrence as well as signs of an inadequate prior resection (incomplete/absent lumbar vessel ligation, unresected ipsilateral gonadal vein, and recurrence posterior to the great vessels) are common in patients experiencing retroperitoneal recurrence after RPLND.
  20. b. First-line treatment is generally systemic chemotherapy followed by consolidative PC-RPLNDLate relapse in patients with prior receipt of chemotherapy is often composed of yolk sac tumor and tends to be relatively chemorefractory regardless of histology. Thus, primary management of resectable disease at late relapse is surgical extirpation. Late relapse in chemotherapy-naïve patients has been associated with improved outcomes likely due to increased susceptibility to chemotherapy.
  21. b. 20% to 60%.Infertility and subfertility are frequently present at GCT diagnosis. This can present challenges to pretreatment sperm banking. For unclear reasons, parameters occasionally improve after orchiectomy. However, this baseline infertility needs to be taken into account when evaluating fertility outcomes after treatment of GCT.
  22. e. a, b, c.Seminal emission and bladder neck closure are both mediated by the L1-L4 postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers vulnerable to resection during RPLND. Although contraction of the bulbospongiosis muscles is necessary for ejaculation, this phenomenon is not mediated by the sympathetic efferents. Penile erection is necessary for vaginal penetration, but not ejaculation. Notably, erection is a parasympathetic process.
  23. d. Limiting fat intake preoperatively.Although it is a troublesome postoperative complication, chylous ascites tends to be transient, and management is usually directed at draining accumulated fluid and minimizing further production by instituting an MCT diet, progressing to total parenteral nutrition if the MCT diet fails, and possibly starting subcutaneous octreotide. A peritoneovenous shunt is an intervention of last resort. Limiting preoperative fat intake has not been shown to decrease the incidence of chylous ascites.
  24. b. 29-year-old male with large-volume left para-aortic and interaortocaval masses that extend through the retrocrural region into the middle visceral mediastinum.Spinal ischemia leading to neurologic compromise is extremely rare. Patients at risk for this potentially devastating complication are those who will require resection of more than three sequential lumbar artery pairs. This tends to be in patients with high-volume para-aortic disease in the retroperitoneum, retrocrural region, and visceral mediastinum.

Chapter review

  1. The proper performance of a radical inguinal orchiectomy includes mobilizing the cord 1 to 2 cm proximal to the internal inguinal ring and individually ligating the vas deferens and cord vessels with silk sutures so that the stump may be identified if an RPLND is performed.
  2. When an orchiectomy has been performed through the scrotum in patients who have a low-stage seminoma, the radiation portals should be extended to include the ipsilateral groin and scrotum; for those with low-stage NSGCT, the scrotal scar should be excised along with the spermatic cord remnant; and for those who have received a full cycle of platinum-based chemotherapy, only the cord stump need be removed at the time of RPLND.
  3. The right testicular lymphatics drain to the interaortocaval lymph nodes followed by paracaval and pericaval nodes. The left testicular lymphatics drain to the periaortic and preaortic lymph nodes.
  4. Contralateral lymphatic flow is more commonly seen in right-sided tumors than left-sided tumors.
  5. There is a 20% to 30% incidence of positive nodes in clinical stage I disease and approximately a 25% relapse rate in such patients who are placed on a surveillance protocol.
  6. Suprahilar metastases are rare in low-stage NSGCT. Three percent to 23% of patients with positive nodes at RPLND will have extra-template disease. The most common site of residual suprahilar disease is in the retrocrural space.
  7. It is extremely important, when performing a primary RPLND, to secure all lymphatic vessels with either clips or ties, particularly in the region of the right renal artery and diaphragmatic crus, to minimize injury to the cisterna chyli, which could result in chylous ascites.
  8. In the presence of documented or suspected metastatic disease, a full bilateral dissection should be performed. In selected cases, preservation of individual nerve fibers may be performed.
  9. The anterior split over the vena cava is not likely to damage nerve fibers; however, the anterior split over the aorta risks injury to these fibers.
  10. The most important nerves to preserve antegrade ejaculation are those arising from the L1-L4 ganglia. To preserve nerve fibers, a dissection on the aorta should only be performed after the nerve fibers have been identified and isolated.
  11. There is a sevenfold increase in cardiovascular complications in men treated with platinum-based chemotherapy.
  12. All patients should be given the opportunity to bank sperm before RPLND.
  13. In clinical stage I NSGCT lymphovascular invasion; higher T stage; tumor involvement of the cord, capsule, or scrotum; and a high percentage of embryonal carcinoma are associated with an increased incidence of retroperitoneal relapse. Most relapses occur within the first 2 years and are rare after 5 years. The absence of teratoma in the primary tumor does not preclude its presence in the retroperitoneum.
  14. Persistently elevated tumor marker levels after orchiectomy require systemic chemotherapy as the next step is not RPLND.
  15. Patients best suited for RPLND are those with clinical stage IIA and low-volume, less than 3-cm ipsilateral disease (stage IIB).
  16. Sixty percent of patients with testicular cancer have subnormal pretreatment semen analyses. Sixty-five percent of men on surveillance can impregnate their partner after orchiectomy.
  17. Bilateral RPLND is the standard template for patients with pathologic stage II NSGCT.
  18. Bleomycin can cause restrictive pulmonary fibrosis with increased collagen deposition and makes the patient highly susceptible to fluid overload.
  19. Increased serum concentration of AFP and hCG after primary platinum-based chemotherapy is usually characterized by unresectable viable tumor, and salvage chemotherapy rather than excision of the mass is recommended.
  20. After chemotherapy, retroperitoneal masses are composed of necrosis/fibrosis in 40%, teratoma in 45%, and viable GCT in 15%. A residual mass after salvage chemotherapy is composed of viable GCT in 50%, teratoma in 40%, and fibrosis in 10%. The clinical behavior of a teratoma is unpredictable, and complete resection is required.
  21. After chemotherapy, RPLND is indicated for NSGCT primary tumors in which the residual mass is larger than 1 cm. RPLND may be eliminated after chemotherapy if there was no evidence of the disease in the retroperitoneum before chemotherapy.
  22. Late relapses occur in 2% to 4% of patients, and more than half of late relapses occur beyond 10 years, emphasizing the need for prolonged follow-up.
  23. If the aortic wall is stripped of its adventitia, it should be replaced with a synthetic graft because delayed rupture may occur.
  24. Tumor involvement of the superior mesenteric artery, celiac axis, or porta hepatis usually precludes resection. After chemotherapy, resection of residual masses should be accompanied by a complete RPLND. The standard bilateral dissection is the prudent approach.
  25. Incidental appendectomy during RPLND increases the risk of infection and should not be performed.
  26. After chemotherapy for seminoma, residual masses very rarely contain teratoma and are extremely difficult technically to remove. Thus a residual mass less than 3 cm should be observed, patients with masses larger than 3 cm should have PET, and if a viable seminoma is noted, then either additional chemotherapy or RPLND is indicated.
  27. After chemotherapy, spermatogenesis may take 3 years to return to normal.
  28. In the setting of complete or near complete occlusion, routine reconstruction of the vena cava following resection is not required.
  29. RPLND histology is a strong predictor of histology at thoracotomy: if necrosis is all that is found in the retroperitoneum, 89% of the time the chest lesions will be necrotic.
  30. The ureters provide the anatomic landmark for the lateral border of dissection for the para-aortic and paracaval lymph node packets.
  31. There are three paired lumbar arteries located between the renal hilum and the aortic bifurcation in nearly all patients.
  32. Patients having received salvage chemotherapy who demonstrate viable GCT at PC-RPLND, those demonstrating teratoma only at PC-RPLND, and those demonstrating transformation to somatic-type malignancy have not been shown to benefit from adjuvant chemotherapy.
  33. Late relapse in patients with prior receipt of chemotherapy is often composed of yolk sac tumor and tends to be relatively chemorefractory regardless of histology. Thus, primary management of resectable disease at late relapse is surgical extirpation.