Gabriel Matthews is a 42-year-old construction worker who comes to you for help. Six months ago he was working with a chainsaw on a construction site and didn’t realize that the gas cap on the saw was loose. The cap came off spilling gasoline all over his clothes and the saw. The heat from the engine ignited the gas setting his clothes on fire. He ran around the construction site ablaze until three other workers came to his aid and extinguished the fire by smothering it with clothing and dirt. He suffered severe burns and spent a significant amount of time in a burn unit.
Five weeks following the accident you are called to consult on him in the burn unit because he is having psychiatric symptoms which started 2 days after the fire and are progressively getting worse. He is having distressing nightmares about being on fire that wake him from sleep. His mood is low and he feels unable to be happy about anything. He is hopeless about the future and feels he has nothing to look forward to. He is getting more and more upset as his days in the unit go on and he has a short temper with the nurses. He keeps sending visitors away who come from his job and who were there the day that the accident happened. He has had several incidents of yelling at various family members when they came to visit. You meet his sister while on the unit who cries as she tells you how hostile Gabriel has been towards the family lately.
1. Gabriel’s most accurate diagnosis is:
A Major depressive disorder
B Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
C Post-traumatic stress disorder
D Mood disorder secondary to a medical condition
2. Gabriel inquires about treatment available for his condition. Which treatments would you consider? (choose 3 of 5)
A Family therapy
D Cognitive behavioral therapy
E Dialectical behavior therapy
3. Which of the following factors would be predictive of a poor prognosis for Gabriel? (choose 2 of 5)
A Rapid onset of symptoms
B Strong social supports
C Absence of other axis I disorders
D Duration of symptoms greater than 6 months
E Borderline personality disorder
4. Which one of the following symptoms is commonly found in patients with Gabriel’s disorder?
A Tactile hallucinations
B Thyroid abnormalities
C Decreased norepinephrine turnover in the locus coeruleus
5. In addition to medication, which of the following would be considered appropriate treatment approaches for this disorder? (choose 4 of 5)
A Overcome the patient’s denial of the traumatic event
B Use of imaginal techniques or in vivo exposure
C Encourage proper sleep providing medication if necessary
D Promote full discharge of aggression as a cathartic exercise to relieve irritability
E Teach the patient cognitive approaches to dealing with stress
6. Which of the following symptoms can be found in both schizophrenia and PTSD? (choose 2 of 4)
B Restricted affect
C Decreased need for sleep
D Sense of foreshortened future
7. Which of the following illnesses can present with decreased sleep? (choose 3 of 4)
A Bipolar I disorder
B Generalized anxiety disorder
C Post-traumatic stress disorder
D Obsessive–compulsive disorder
8. In Gabriel’s case he associated the trauma of the fire with chainsaws. For years afterwards he would have severe anxiety whenever he saw a chainsaw. He would avoid going near the outdoor power equipment whenever he was in a hardware store. This is a good example of which one of the following?
A Operant conditioning
B Learned helplessness
C Classical conditioning
D Premack’s principle
9. Which one of the following is not considered a symptom of increased arousal when diagnosing PTSD?
A Poor concentration
B Outbursts of anger
C Feelings of detachment from others
D Difficulty falling asleep
10. Which of the following should be considered in the differential for post-traumatic stress disorder? (choose 4 of 5)
A Panic disorder
B Substance abuse
C Major depressive disorder
D Borderline personality disorder
E Schizotypal personality disorder
A 65-year-old woman presents to your office with a complaint of longstanding symptoms that have plagued her since her adolescence. She reports chronic suicidal ideation, low mood, inability to focus or concentrate. Her memory is fairly good, but she doesn’t enjoy anything that she used to do. She used to play cards with friends, drive herself to the mall to go shopping, take trips to visit her children and grandchildren in various cities. She denies hearing voices or having paranoid or suspicious thoughts about people. Her sleep is very broken and she only gets about 4 hours each night. She has no motivation to shop, cook or clean for herself and she admits it to you. Her appetite is poor and she has already lost twenty pounds over the past year from not eating properly.
Her eldest daughter, age 42, accompanies her to your office. Her daughter is quite concerned for her mother because she has been on “every antidepressant you can imagine.” As a nurse, her daughter is able to rattle off a list of medications that her mother has tried in the past: imipramine, doxepin, phenelzine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, venlafaxine, duloxetine. None of these improved her back to her baseline. She has also had trials of several of these medications with other augmenting agents such as: methylphenidate, lorazepam, aripiprazole, lithium, and buspirone.
On examination in your office, the patient is conversant and coherent, but very slow to speak and her affect is blunted and speech is quiet and monotonous with marked alogia. She denies suicidal or homicidal thoughts or intentions at this time.
1. Your immediate clinical thoughts after interviewing this patient should be focused on:
A Sending her home with a trial of bupropion and desvenlafaxine at high doses along with L-methylfolate for augmentation, since she has never been on these agents
B Admitting her to the psychiatric hospital voluntarily for inpatient electroshock therapy
C Getting her a bed in a local skilled nursing facility because she cannot manage her activities of daily living appropriately
D Considering reporting her daughter to the authorities for elder abuse
E Enlisting a local ACT team (assertive community treatment team) to pick up her care and service her needs in her home instead of in a clinic setting
2. You decide to admit her to the hospital and she agrees to go on a voluntary basis. Before considering electroshock therapy, which of the following would be appropriate to do as a pretreatment evaluation? (pick 3 of 6)
A Bloodwork for blood count and comprehensive chemistry (CBC and chem-20)
B Head CT scan or MRI
C Thyroid function tests
F Neck and spine radiography
3. Which of the following is a contraindication to electroshock therapy?
B Space-occupying brain lesion
C Recent myocardial infarction within the past month
E There are no absolute contraindications to electroshock therapy
4. In order for a seizure to be deemed effective in electroshock therapy sessions, its duration must be at least:
A 5 seconds
B 15 seconds
C 25 seconds
D 45 seconds
E 60 seconds
5. Which of the following are not generally considered to be adverse effects of electroshock therapy? (pick 2 of 6)
C Nausea and vomiting
D Dizziness and lightheadedness
6. Which of the following situations is an indication for maintenance electroshock therapy after an initial successful group of treatments? (pick 3 of 6)
A Severe medication side effects and intolerance
B Profound memory loss following the initial treatment sessions
C Psychotic or severe symptoms
D Rapid relapse after successful initial treatment sessions
E Delirium resulting from initial treatment sessions
7. Which of the following medications should be discontinued prior to electroshock therapy administration? (pick 3 of 6)
8. Which of the following agents is not generally used as an anesthetic agent in electroshock therapy because of its strong anticonvulsant properties?
A Methohexital (Brevital)
B Ketamine (Ketalar)
C Etomidate (Amidate)
D Propofol (Diprivan)
E Alfentanil (Alfenta)
9. Which of the following is the typical course of electrode placement in electroshock therapy that is followed by most practitioners?
A Start with bilateral electrode placement always, as this is more effective
B Start with bilateral electrode placement, but move to unilateral placement if persistent memory loss occurs after 6 sessions
C Start with unilateral electrode placement, but move to bilateral placement if no improvement is seen after four to six unilateral treatments
D Start with unilateral electrode placement always, as this is safer and causes fewer side effects
E Start with unilateral electrode placement always, making sure placement is over the nondominant hemisphere to avoid language and cognitive deficits
Cathy Kelly is a 31-year-old computer programmer who works for a website design company. She comes to your office with reports of decreased mood, poor appetite, poor concentration, and feelings of worthlessness. She states, “I haven’t gotten a good night’s sleep in weeks and I’ve lost about 10 pounds recently.” These symptoms have been present for the past 5 weeks. On further questioning she describes a period 2 years ago when she “had some trouble” around her sister’s wedding. In the 4 days leading up to the wedding she was only sleeping 2 hours per night. She tells you, “I wasn’t tired and had enough energy to make pastries and gifts for the wedding guests. I was up working almost all night.” She recalls that “brilliant ideas for new projects” were running through her mind at that time. She continued going to work at her computer programming job during those 4 days and felt that she was very productive. When the wedding came she drank excessively and used her position as a bridesmaid to meet single friends of the groom. She took several men into a secluded bathroom and had sex with them during the wedding reception. When asked about substance abuse she reports using both cocaine and alcohol in the past to “make me feel better.” She denies any cocaine use around the time of her sister’s wedding however.
1. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate diagnosis for Cathy?
A Bipolar I disorder
B Major depressive disorder
C Bipolar II disorder
D Cyclothymic disorder
E Substance induced mood disorder
2. Which one of the following is a key differentiating factor between mania and hypomania?
A Irritable mood
B Decreased need for sleep
C Marked impairment in social or occupational functioning
D Flight of ideas
3. Which of the following factors should impact your choice of medications for Cathy? (choose 4 of 5)
A The presence of psychosis
B The presence of rapid cycling
C The severity of symptoms
4. In which of the following scenarios would you consider ECT for Cathy? (choose 2 of 4)
A Cathy is pregnant and currently manic
B Cathy has severe mania and psychosis that has responded poorly to medication
C Cathy has mania secondary to a medical condition
D Cathy has substance induced mania
5. Which of the following medical conditions can be associated with mania? (choose 3 of 4)
B Cushing’s disease
C Multiple sclerosis
D Thiamine deficiency
6. Which of the following medications can cause a manic episode? (choose 4 of 5)
7. During the periods when Cathy used cocaine which of the following were true concerning her brain? (choose 3 or 4)
A Dopamine activity increased in the corpus striatum
B Dopamine activity decreased in the mesocortical pathway
C Dopamine activity increased in the mesolimbic pathway
D There was both dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
8. Which one of the following is not a potential sequelae of cocaine use?
A Onset of hallucinations and paranoia
B A significant appearance of lights in the central visual field
D Itching and respiratory depression
9. Which of the following have a role in the treatment of cocaine overdose? (choose 3 of 4)
A IV diazepam
C IV phentolamine
10. What percentage of patients with bipolar disorder have a co-occurring substance disorder like Cathy?
Susan Walton is a 20-year-old college student. You interview her in the emergency room following an overdose of Tylenol. She reports that she was happily shopping with her boyfriend when he spotted an attractive woman on the other side of the street. “He’s such an asshole,” she tells you. She says he watched the woman closely as she walked away and Susan was certain that he was attracted to her. “I could tell by the way he was looking at her. She was such a whore. Is that what he wants? A whore like that?” she screams at you. According to her boyfriend Susan then reached into her purse, pulled out a bottle of Tylenol and swallowed as many pills as she could before her boyfriend wrestled the bottle from her hands. He became panicked and brought her to the emergency room. On the drive in she scratched up and down her arms using her fingernails, breaking the skin. She then began biting her forearms until they bled. He tried to pull the car over and stop her but she scratched his face when he tried to intervene. When she arrived in the emergency room she was crying hysterically and cursing at her boyfriend. When he attempted to comfort her she spat on him and smacked him in the face, scratching him again with her nails. She called him a “piece of trash” and insisted that he wants to cheat on her “with that whore” which he denied.
When she is calmer you take some further history from her. She tells you “I was severely sexually abused as a small child. But I didn’t tell anyone until I was a teenager. I started having sex at the age of 15. I used cocaine. I smoked. I really didn’t care. I was extremely self-abusive and it got to the point where I wanted to kill myself to rid myself of the anger, the hurt, the pain, the confusion.” She admits that she has made prior suicide attempts. She tells you “When I was seventeen I looked forward to getting my drivers license so I could run the car into a support column on the highway, or into a semi truck. I drove very recklessly; I didn’t want it to be an obvious suicide.” She informs you that when she was 18 she had a very severe car accident and ended up in the intensive care unit.
1. Which one of the following is Susan’s most likely diagnosis?
A Major depressive disorder
B Borderline personality disorder
C Bipolar I disorder
D Histrionic personality disorder
E Social anxiety disorder
2. Which of the following are criteria for Susan’s diagnosis? (choose 4 of 5)
A Chronic feelings of emptiness
B Intense episodic dysphoria
D Severe dissociative symptoms
E Transient stress related paranoia
3. Susan’s suicide attempt could best be attributed to which one of the following?
A Severe depressed mood
B Overwhelming anxiety
C Perceived rejection
D Grandiose self-importance
4. What is the treatment of choice for Susan’s condition?
B Family therapy
C Dialectical behavior therapy
D Supportive psychotherapy
5. Which of the following choices apply to patients with Susan’s condition? (choose 3 of 4)
A They are in touch with reality only on a basic level
B They have limited capacity for insight
C They use many primitive defenses
D They have an integrated sense of self
6. Which of the following defense mechanisms is Susan most likely to use based on her diagnosis? (choose 2 of 5)
D Acting Out
7. Which of the following are legitimate reasons why borderline patients commit acts of self-mutilation? (choose 3 of 4)
A To obtain social isolation
B To express anger
C To elicit help from others
D To numb themselves to overwhelming affect
8. Susan takes intolerable aspects of herself and exports them onto her boyfriend leading him over time to accept and play that role. This phenomenon is known as which one of the following?
D Projective identification
9. Which of the following are not considered part of Susan’s disorder? (choose 3 of 4)
A Prolonged psychotic episodes
B Marked peculiarity of thinking
C Extreme suspiciousness
D Impulsive behaviors
10. Which of the following medications may play a role in treating Susan’s condition? (choose 4 of 5)
Cathy Allen comes to Dr. Rupert Smith’s office for an initial appointment. Dr. Smith is a psychiatrist who comes highly recommended. With Cathy is her husband Bob. Dr. Smith meets them in the waiting area. Cathy introduces herself and asks if her husband Bob can come in to the appointment with her.
1. The most therapeutically appropriate response to Cathy’s request would be:
A “No. I only want to meet with you because you’re the patient.”
B “Nice to meet you Cathy. I’m Dr. Smith. Of course your husband can come in if you want him to.”
C “I’m Dr. Smith. Cathy, you come in.”
D “Sure your husband can come in.”
2. Following this interchange Dr. Smith is now about to start the interview. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to begin? (Choose 2 of 4)
A “Tell me about the problems you’ve been having.”
B “You look depressed to me. What’s going on?”
C “Where would you like to begin?”
D “You’re very thin. Is this your normal weight? How is your appetite?”
Cathy gives a short sentence or two in response to Dr. Smith’s initial question. She then sits silently and says no more. He tries to get her to speak more but is unsuccessful. Her body language indicates that she is anxious and uncomfortable. She gives very little information in response to follow-up questions.
3. How should Dr. Smith proceed?
A “You obviously don’t want to be here. Maybe we should stop the interview.”
B “Bob, if she doesn’t tell me what’s wrong I can’t help her.”
C “Do you have any pets? Tell me about them.”
D “I can’t help but notice that you’re uncomfortable talking to me. Is there anything I could do to make you more comfortable?”
4. Following Dr. Smith’s intervention Cathy opens up and tells him more about the problems she’s been having. Being an astute psychiatrist, Dr. Smith pays attention to both the content and process of the interview. Which of the following would be considered process? (choose 3 of 4)
A Cathy nervously tears a piece of paper into pieces
B Cathy describes poor sleep for the past two weeks
C Cathy changes the subject whenever the topic of her job comes up
D Cathy’s body becomes tense and rigid while discussing her work
5. The interview moves forward and Cathy describes some feelings of depression she’s been having. Dr. Smith says “you say you haven’t been sleeping. How many hours per night are you getting?” This question is an example of:
6. After discussing current symptoms of Cathy’s illness Dr. Smith says “I think I understand your current symptoms pretty well. Now let’s talk about your medical history.” This comment is an example of:
C Positive reinforcement
7. Following an hour long interview Dr. Smith seeks to wrap up. Which of the following are important steps he should keep in mind while concluding the session? (choose 4 of 5)
A Give Cathy a chance to ask questions
B Thank the patient for sharing information
C Review any prescriptions to make sure the patient understands why she is to take them and how to take them
D Be clear about what the next step in the treatment will be
E Discourage Cathy from calling with questions between sessions
8. Which of the following are essential elements in order for Dr. Smith to develop rapport with Cathy during the interview? (choose 4 of 5)
A Putting the patient at ease
B Expressing compassion for pain
C Showing expertise
D Establishing authority as a physician
E Know the answer to almost every question the patient asks
9. Which of the following variables are proven to be associated with decreased rates of patient compliance with treatment? (choose 2 of 4)
B Increased complexity of treatment regimen
C Increased number of behavioral changes
D Socioeconomic status
10. In which one of the following models of the doctor–patient relationship does the physician behave in a paternalistic fashion?
A Active–passive model
B Teacher–student model
C Mutual participation model
D Friendship model
You are asked to see a patient at your outpatient clinic. “Pearl” Probst comes to see you on a Monday morning. You quickly realize that “Pearl” is not a woman. She is a preoperative trans-sexual of 24 years of age. Her real name is Peter Probst and she lives alone in an apartment in the city where you work. Pearl tells you that she has felt like a woman trapped in a man’s body since her pre-teenage years. She began dressing as a woman in college and has begun the pre-operative transition from male to female by taking female sex hormones. She plans on following this up with sex-change surgery at some point in the future.
Pearl tells you that she and her girlfriend engage in sexual acts involving bondage, inflicting pain on each other and stepping and spitting on each other. She asks you if you have any concerns about this behavior. She also reveals that she and her partner enjoy taking showers together and urinating on each other.
You ask if Pearl considers herself to be heterosexual or homosexual and she states “I am a gay woman of course!”
1. Pearl probably meets criteria for which of the following DSM disorders? (Pick 3 of 6)
A Transvestic fetishism
B Gender identity disorder
E Sexual sadomasochism
2. Which of the following is not a poor prognostic factor in the paraphilias?
A Onset of symptoms in middle-age
B Frequent recurrent acts
C Concomitant substance abuse
D Lack of guilt or shame about the acts
E The act of intercourse does not occur with the paraphilia
3. Which of the following are good prognostic factors in the treatment dynamic of paraphilias? (pick 3 of 6)
A Substance abuse
B Successful relationships and adult attachments
C Normal intelligence
D The presence of multiple paraphilias
E The presence of concomitant axis one mental disorders
F The absence of a personality disorder
4. Which of the following are not typically interventions that are used to treat paraphilias? (Pick 2 of 6)
B Insight-oriented psychotherapy
C Cognitive-behavioral therapy
D Interpersonal psychotherapy
E Twelve-step programs
F Antiandrogen therapy
5. Which of the following factors, that is atypical of gender identity disorder, puts Pearl’s case among the minority of patients with this disorder?
A The fact that she is an adult trans-sexual who wants gender-reassignment surgery
B The fact that she is taking feminizing hormone therapy
C The fact that she has felt like a woman trapped in a man’s body for years
D The fact that she is a biological male wanting to become a female
E The fact that she considers herself a “gay woman” and has a girlfriend
6. Which of the following facts is not true about gender identity disorder (GID)?
A There is no evidence that psychological or psychiatric intervention for children with GID can affect the direction of later sexual orientation
B There are well-established hormonal and psychopharmacologic protocols for GID in childhood
C When patient gender dysphoria is severe, sex-reassignment surgery may be the best solution
D No drug therapy has been shown to reduce cross-gender desires in adult patients with GID
E Treatment of adolescents with GID may involve giving cross-sex hormones to slow down or stop pubertal changes of the birth sex and implement cross-sex body changes
You are a forensic psychiatrist working in private practice. You are faced with the evaluation of a fellow psychiatrist Dr. Dean Daniels, who is alleged to have had sexual relations with a former patient of his, Selena Victor. Dr. Daniels has already been arrested and charged and he is now out of jail on a 1 million dollar bond posted by his high-profile attorney, L. Lloyd Wolff Esq. As per his lawyer, he is charged with one count of rape and two counts of sexual assault. His lawyer informs you that Dr. Daniels has a history of depression and alcoholism and has been hospitalized psychiatrically in the past. Dr. Daniels has never had a malpractice case brought against him and his medical license has never been sanctioned in any way. Dr. Daniels is now back in his office practicing as usual until his first court date comes up next month.
1. If you agree to take this case on as an expert witness for the defense, what should be your next thoughts and maneuvers? (pick 3 of 7)
A The defendant needs a thorough psychiatric evaluation
B Neuropsychological testing is not necessary, as it is unlikely to reveal deficits, given that he was practicing his profession actively at the time of the alleged crimes
C Dr. Daniels should not be practicing his profession now until his court appearance because he may incriminate himself further and ruin any chance at a proper defense at trial
D Dr. Daniels should have a brain PET and functional MRI to see if brain damage can be used as a mitigating factor in his defense
E Collateral information will be key in determining Dr. Daniels’ mental status at the time the alleged acts were committed
F Competency to stand trial is an essential function of your evaluation as an expert witness for the defense
G Ethically, you cannot defend Dr. Daniels because he is a member of your own profession and there is a conflict of interest in this regard
2. The legal components that will dictate if Dr. Daniels can or should be declared not guilty by reason of insanity by a jury are: (pick 3 of 6)
A Duty to warn and protect
B “Mens rea”
C Competency to stand trial
D “Actus reus”
E The matter of Ford v. Wainwright
F M’Naghten Rule
3. In order for you to declare him competent to stand trial, you must find Dr. Daniels able to: (pick 3 of 6)
A Take the stand on trial in his own defense under the guidance of his attorney
B Recognize and identify the persons involved in his case
C Recall the various events surrounding the alleged crimes with accuracy
D Collaborate with his attorney with a reasonable degree of rational understanding
E Understand the charges that are being brought against him
F State whether he would prefer a psychiatric plea or a regular plea of guilty versus not guilty
4. What role will alleged victim Selena Victor play in your defense of Dr. Daniels?
A You will interview and examine her to destroy her credibility as a witness and support Dr. Daniels’ defense
B The defense attorney can subpoena Selena for a psychiatric evaluation by you
C The prosecution can protect Selena as a witness and can prevent you from examining her for the defense
D If the prosecution obtains their own psychiatric expert to examine Selena, the defense team will be allowed to have you examine Selena as well. Barring that, the defense team will have the opportunity to have you review the report and write a critique of it and/or testify at trial in opposition to that report if the defense team deems it best to do so
E The judge has the ultimate discretion and final word to determine Selena’s role in the judicial process
5. In a case such as Dr. Daniels’, what would be the possible sanctions if he were to go to trial and be found “not guilty by reason of insanity” by the jury on all three charges? (pick 3 of 6)
A He could continue to practice psychiatry as before
B He could lose his medical license and be remanded to outpatient treatment by the court
C He could be allowed to retain his medical license and be remanded by the court to an intensive outpatient psychiatric day program for treatment
D He could eventually practice psychiatry again after completion of appropriate treatment of his disorder, based on mandated future psychiatric evaluation
E His name would be inscribed on a computer-based list of sex offenders if his state maintains such a list
F He could continue to practice psychiatry as before, but not with female patients
Steven Geller is a 30-year-old male with paranoid schizophrenia. He stopped his medications 3 weeks ago. In response to the voices that followed, he then stopped eating and drinking. The voices have been telling him that his food is poisoned. “They put rat poison in your food” the voices told him. His mother became concerned when he wouldn’t eat for two days. She made him several of his favorite foods and tried to convince him to eat but he barricaded himself in his room and would not come out for 24 hours. His mother then called EMS. You interview him in the emergency room after he is brought into the hospital.
1. Which of the following statements would you include in Steven’s mental status exam given what you know at this point?
A Thought content includes paranoid delusions
B Thought content includes auditory hallucinations
C Thought process includes flight of ideas
D Perceptions include auditory hallucinations
On further interview Steven screams at you that he is “God’s chosen one” and further states that people are trying to poison him to prevent him from revealing his identity to the world. He states that he will be “raised into the heavens on clouds.” You question the veracity of this statement and he insists that it is true. He does not believe that it is a creation of his mind and is certain that those who doubt him are wrong. “I will burn the disbelievers” he tells you.
2. Where should this new information be included in the mental status exam?
A Thought content
D Thought process
3. During your exam you notice that Steven is malodorous and is wearing dirty clothes. You note a rancid odor in the room and observe brown streaks on his pant legs. On closer inspection it appears to be feces. His family verifies that he has been failing to maintain hygiene since stopping his medication. Which of the following would be an accurate GAF score for Steven on Axis V?
You begin to perform a mini-mental status exam on Steven. You ask him to count backwards from 100 by 7s. He replies “93, 89, 81, 74.” You ask him if he can go further and he replies “Go to hell. I am the chosen one. I won’t do anything I don’t want to.”
4. How would you document this exchange? (choose 2 of 4)
A Memory is intact
B Concentration is impaired
C Abstract thinking is intact
D Attitude is hostile
5. Steven’s belief about being the chosen one would best be described as:
A Pseudologia phantastica
B Delusion of grandeur
D Nihilistic delusion
6. The mesocortical pathway which is responsible for the __________ symptoms of schizophrenia begins at the _____________.
A Positive; ventral tegmental area
B Negative; nucleus accumbens
C Positive; nucleus accumbens
D Negative; ventral tegmental area
7. Which of the following are correct concerning schizophrenia? (choose 3 of 4)
A Positive symptoms are associated with frequency of hospitalization
B Cognitive symptoms are directly related to long-term functional outcome
C Positive symptoms are directly related to long-term functional outcome
D Schizophrenia is associated with a 10% suicide rate.
8. Which of the following would be consistent with a diagnosis of residual schizophrenia? (choose 3 of 4)
A Command auditory hallucinations
B Absence of prominent delusions
C Unusual perceptual experiences in attenuated form
D Absence of disorganized behavior
9. Which of the following are common aspects of appearance for schizophrenic patients? (choose 4 of 5)
A Lack of spontaneous movement
D Bizarre posture
E Bright clothing
10. Which of the following are often found as part of thought form for schizophrenic patients? (choose 3 of 4)
B Ideas of reference
C Word salad
Judy Albanese, a local college student, is brought into the emergency room when her roommate called EMS after she collapsed at the gym. She appears malnourished and emaciated. Her roommate told EMS that she hadn’t been eating recently. She had cut down to one meal per day in order to lose weight. Yesterday the only thing she ate all day was a cereal bar. She has been spending 3 hours each day at the gym after classes in an effort to lose weight. Despite being emaciated she believes that she is overweight. She recently told her roommate “I’m so gross! I don’t know how anyone stands to look at me. All the skinny girls get the boyfriends, the attention, and what do I get?” When you ask her more questions she admits to you “I feel cold all the time. I have terrible headaches, and when I shower big clumps of hair fall out of my head.” She goes on to tell you “During class, instead of listening to lectures or taking notes, I think about what I have eaten that day, when I will eat again, what I will eat. I like to bake and bring the treats to school the next day, to give to my friends. I watch them eat. I’m really jealous of them when they eat. I read cookbooks for fun and have collected hundreds of recipes. I never look in the mirror without thinking, Fat.
1. Which of the following factors would you consider essential to make a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa? (choose 3 of 4)
A Body weight less than 85% of expected for height and age
B A disturbance in how body weight is experienced
D Binge eating and purging behavior
2. Based on diagnostic criteria you determine that Judy has anorexia. Which of the following medical complications are likely to be associated with the diagnosis? (choose 5 of 6)
E Metabolic encephalopathy
F Ulcerative colitis
3. Which of the following would be considered indications that Judy should be admitted to a hospital? (choose 3 of 4)
A Significant hypokalemia
B Weight less than 75% of expected for height and age
C Growth arrest
4. As part of your evaluation of Judy you wish to calculate her BMI. How do you do that?
A 100 lbs for the first 5 ft in height + 5 lbs/inch over 5feet ± 10%
C [Age(y) × .375 + height (m)] × 0.093/0.09[daily caloric intake(Cal)]
5. You consider treatment options for Judy. Which of the following have proven efficacy in patients with anorexia? (choose 4 of 5)
A Cognitive behavioral therapy
B Family therapy
6. Which of the following are possible complications of self-induced vomiting? (choose 3 of 4)
A Russell’s sign
B Mallory–Weiss syndrome
C Spontaneous abortion
D Atonic colon
7. Which of the following are possible complications of ipecac abuse? (choose 3 of 4)
A Skeletal muscle atrophy
B Rectal prolapse
D Prolonged QTc interval
8. Which of the following statements are correct concerning anorexia? (choose 2 of 3)
A Risk of anorexia increases when family members have anorexia
B Patients with anorexia often demonstrate traits of paranoid personality disorder
C Patients with anorexia are characterized by emotional flexibility
D Adolescence is a time of increased risk for anorexia
9. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis for anorexia? (choose 4 of 5)
A Major depressive disorder
B Anxiety disorders
C Bulimia nervosa
D Substance abuse
E Brief psychotic disorder
10. Medical treatment for anorexia should include which of the following? (choose 3 of 4)
A Combination estrogen and progesterone
B Dental follow-up
D Correction of hypokalemia
Lisa is a 22-year-old barista at a local coffee shop who comes to your office seeking help after feeling that she did not get any better with her primary care physician. She gives a long history of anxiety around other people dating back to childhood. At one point while in high school her mother pressured her to become a camp councilor in order to “overcome shyness.” Lisa was able to force herself to do it for a few weeks but then became overwhelmed by the anxiety and quit. She also went through a period of time during her school years when she wouldn’t use public restrooms or would only use them if they were completely empty. She got into trouble for leaving class to go to the restroom all of the time. When the restroom was empty during classes she felt the most comfortable using it.
Now she reports being very anxious at work and at parties. She snuck out of the holiday party for her job because she was so uncomfortable. She worries that other people are judging her and won’t like her. She says that she feels stupid interacting with others, especially at work. She had quit a previous job because there were weekly meetings which she had to attend and speak in front of 30 people. Her anxiety about these meetings led her to quit the job. When you ask about her personal life she tells you “I’ve gone on dates once or twice but have never had any long-term relationships. Dates are excruciating for me. Making conversation with new people makes me so uncomfortable and anxious.”
Lisa’s primary care physician had tried her on sertraline in the past. She comes to you to see if there is anything else you can offer her.
1. Which of the following should be included in Lisa’s differential diagnosis? (choose 3 of 4)
A Panic disorder
B Schizoaffective disorder
C Social phobia
D Generalized anxiety disorder
2. Given Lisa’s medication history which other medications may be worth trying? (Choose 3 of 4)
3. Which of the following has the best evidence to support its use in Lisa’s condition?
A Cognitive behavioral therapy
B Supportive psychotherapy
C Motivational interviewing
D Psychodynamic psychotherapy
4. Lisa is most likely to be misdiagnosed with which of the following? (choose 2 of 4)
A Schizoid personality disorder
B Avoidant personality disorder
C Schizotypal personality disorder
D Dependent personality disorder
5. Which diagnosis best explains Lisa’s avoidance of public restrooms during her school years?
A Specific phobia
B Panic disorder
C Social phobia
6. The non-generalized subtype of social phobia is most successfully treated by which one of the following?
7. The major concern of patients with social phobia is which one of the following?
A Avoidance of relationships
B The need for someone to be with them in stressful situations
C Fear of rejection
D Fear of embarrassment
8. If we changed Lisa’s age to 16 years old in the vignette above, how long would she need to have symptoms in order to meet DSM criteria for social phobia?
A 2 weeks
B 2 months
C 6 weeks
D 6 months
9. Which of the following are common side effects of Lisa’s condition? (choose 3 of 4)
B Dry mouth
D Fear of dying
10. As many as one third of patients with Lisa’s condition also meet criteria for which one of the following disorders?
A Major depressive disorder
C Cocaine abuse
D Body dysmorphic disorder
Carl Freeman is an obese 59-year-old male who is referred to you by his primary care physician for complaints of depression. Carl lives with his girlfriend Heidi Schmitz and her three children Blair, Denny, and Rao. He works as a customer service representative at a health insurance company. He tells you that “my co-workers resent me because I keep falling asleep at my desk during the day. I’ve even fallen asleep in the middle of phone calls with customers.” Because he has had difficulty at work he was referred for a medical evaluation. He reports decreased energy, fatigue, and poor sleep. He states that he had difficulty concentrating at work. He tells you “I’ve been irritable and fatigued. I’m having terrible headaches. I’ve been gaining weight recently and I can’t concentrate. Basically everything is going wrong right now.” He tried to sleep more at night but this did not make him feel any better. He tried taking naps in his car during his lunch hour but this didn’t help. His primary care physician felt that he was depressed and referred him to you. When you interview him on his sleep habits he reports that his wife stopped sleeping in the same room as him due to his snoring. He tells you that she calls him a “water buffalo” because of the noises he makes while he sleeps.
1. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis for Carl? (choose 2 of 3)
A Major depressive disorder
B Sleep apnea
C Klein–Levin syndrome
2. Which of the following would you include in a workup for this patient? (choose 2 of 3)
B Periodic limb movements of sleep test
D Nocturnal polysomnography
3. Which of the following are possible complications of Carl’s condition? (choose 3 of 4)
A Increased risk of cardiovascular complications
B Decreased mood
C Increased neck girth
D Decreased cognition
4. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning Carl’s condition?
A Carl has a parasomnia
B Carl has a dyssomnia
C Modafinil would be the treatment of choice for Carl
D Carl’s condition places him at increased risk for Parkinson’s disease
5. Which one of the following is Carl most likely to be misdiagnosed with?
A Pavor nocturnus
C Jactatio capitis nocturna
D Gastroesophageal reflux
6. Which of the following choices are true concerning obstructive sleep apnea? (choose 2 of 3)
A Airflow ceases during apnic episodes
B Respiratory effort decreases during apnic episodes
C Patients need at least 3 apnic episodes per hour to meet criteria
D Respiratory effort increases during apnic episodes
7. Which of the following complications are common with obstructive sleep apnea? (choose 3 of 4)
B Changes in blood pressure during apnic episodes
C Pulmonary hypotension
D Chronic increase in systemic blood pressure
8. Which of the following are true concerning REM sleep behavior disorder? (choose 2 of 4)
A It occurs primarily in females
B Loss of atonia during REM is a major component
C Violent behavior can be a complication
D Symptoms improve following treatment with stimulants or fluoxetine
9. Which of the following are symptoms of sleep-related gastroesophageal reflux? (choose 3 of 4)
A Awakening from sleep
C Chest tightness
D Cessation of airflow
10. Which of the following would be considered sleep hygiene measures? (choose 3 of 4)
A Avoid daytime naps
B Exercise during the day
C Use of zolpidem
D Arise at the same time each morning
Ryan Huang is a 35-year-old male who is unemployed and lives with his mother. He comes to your clinic with compliant of voices telling him to kill his mother because “She is the fiend. She is the devil.” He reports sleeping in his car for the past few days because he is trying to stay away from his mother so that he doesn’t hurt her. “I don’t want to go to jail” he tells you.
Ryan has a history of violence towards his mother. When he was in his 20s she took out an order of protection against him following an incident where he choked her in response to command auditory hallucinations. When the order of protection expired she did not renew it. In subsequent years he began to do better. Eventually she allowed him to move back into the home.
Ryan reported that the voices began when he was 16 years old. He doesn’t like them because they tell him to harm others as well as himself. During his first psychiatric hospitalization he developed oculogyric crisis from multiple PRN Haldol injections. Since this experience he has demonstrated an unwillingness to maintain compliance with medications. He is currently prescribed ziprasidone but has only intermittent compliance.
Ryan’s mother also tells you that he has a significant alcohol problem. She says he drinks daily. Ryan himself admits to periods of “the shakes” and previous blackouts. His drinking tends to get worse at certain points. He will go on binges and drink excessively for up to a week at a time.
Ryan’s trauma history includes being raped repeatedly by an older male cousin between the ages of 13 and 16. He admits that this has impacted him but has difficulty explaining how. He denies current flashbacks.
Medical history is significant for smoking 1 pack per day of cigarettes, hypertension, high cholesterol and poorly controlled diabetes. He endorses a head injury which happened when he was 13. When he tried to resist a rape attempt by his cousin, his cousin beat him until he was unconscious. On exam he recalls 1 out of 3 objects after 5 minutes. He is oriented to person, place, and time.
1. Which of the following should be considered in Ryan’s differential diagnosis? (choose 4 of 5)
B Substance induced psychotic disorder
C Post-traumatic stress disorder
D Generalized anxiety disorder
E Dementia NOS
2. Which of the following would you include in a medical workup for Ryan? (choose 5 of 6)
A Thyroid function tests
B Thiamine level
C Head CT
E Urine toxicology
F Prolactin level
3. Which of the following are the most likely side effects Ryan will experience from treatment with ziprasidone? (choose 2 of 4)
A Weight gain
B Extrapyramidal symptoms
D Cardiac effects
4. Ryan’s history includes significant substance abuse. Heavy use of which one of the following drugs before the age of 16 has been correlated with an increased relative risk of schizophrenia?
5. If a patient presents with psychosis for more than one month but does not meet criteria A for schizophrenia what diagnoses are possible? (choose 2 of 4)
A Schizoaffective disorder
B Delusional disorder
C Schizotypal disorder
D Psychosis NOS
6. Which one of the following medications are not antagonists at the 5HT2A receptor?
7. Which of the following choices are true concerning delusional disorder? (choose 2 of 4)
A Auditory hallucinations may be present
B Memory impairment may be seen
C Tactile hallucinations may be present
D Unnecessary medical interventions may be part of the picture
8. Which one of the following is correct concerning brief psychotic disorder?
A The patient will not return to normal functioning
B Primary preventative measures can involve treatment with low dose risperidone
C Hallucinations may be present but delusions are not
D Symptoms last between one day and one month
9. Which of the following are true concerning psychotic symptoms? (choose 4 of 5)
A Tactile hallucinations are more common in medical and neurologic conditions than in schizophrenia
B Illusions are sensory misperceptions of actual stimuli
C Delusions are fixed false beliefs which are not supported by cultural norms
D Word salad is the violation of basic rules of grammar seen in severe thought disorder
E Cataplexy is synonymous with waxy flexibility
10. A differential diagnosis for new onset psychosis may include which of the following medical conditions? (choose 4 of 5)
A Systemic lupus erythematosus
B Temporal lobe epilepsy
D Wilson’s disease
E Phymatous rosacea
John Jameson, a 42-year-old man, is brought by ambulance, accompanied by police to your emergency room at 2:00am in the morning. Upon arrival, he is agitated and the police and emergency medical technicians cannot manage his aggression. He refuses to answer your questions and gives you a verbal tongue lashing when you try to approach him. Nobody else accompanies him and there are no collaterals present from whom you can obtain information. You discover he has never been to your hospital before, as there is no medical record at your facility in his name. Mental status examination is impossible at this time, as he is completely uncooperative with you. He shouts obscenities at you and yells out that his mother should be shot for what she has done to him.
1. What are your very next steps in management with respect to this patient? (pick 2 of 6)
A Draw blood for basic labs and obtain a CT scan of the head to rule out organic causes for his agitation
B Ask the police and emergency technicians why they brought him
C Admit him to the psychiatry unit on an involuntary basis
D Do your best to obtain his mother’s contact information and call her as soon as possible to find out what “she has done to him”
E Have him restrained by police and/or hospital security so you can administer him an intramuscular injection of haloperidol and lorazepam to help calm him
F Obtain medical consultation and clearance from the emergency room physician
2. Which of the following is not a predictor of dangerousness to others in violent patients, such as in the patient scenario depicted in this vignette? (pick 2 of 6)
A Prior violent acts
B Chronic anger, hostility, or resentment
C Female gender
D Numerous medical problems
E Childhood brutality or deprivation
F Access to weapons or instruments of violence
3. When attempting to interview this violent and agitated patient, the psychiatrist should do which of the following? (pick 3 of 6)
A Conduct the interview in a quiet, nonstimulating area of the emergency room
B Avoid asking the patient if he has weapons on him to avoid further anger and agitation.
C Request that security personnel give their assistance during the interview, if needed.
D Avoid any behavior that could be misconstrued by the patient as menacing, such as standing over the patient.
E Explain to the patient that any refusal to answer questions will result in him being medicated and admitted to hospital over his objection.
F Interview the patient in an enclosed locked room to prevent the patient from fleeing.
4. Once the patient is sedated, the emergency room medical physician completes a workup on the patient. The workup, including drug screen and head CT, is negative and the patient is cleared from a medical and surgical perspective. If you are unable to obtain any further history on this patient, your disposition for him should be to: (pick 3 of 6)
A Discharge him home with outpatient psychiatric follow-up
B Admit him to the psychiatric inpatient unit on an involuntary basis
C Start him on aripiprazole and divalproex sodium in the emergency room
D Contact police to return to the emergency room to arrest the patient
E Obtain a social work consultation after holding him overnight in the emergency room pending further information
F Attempt to call his mother and tell her about his feelings towards her
5. Once admitted to the psychiatric unit, it is discovered that the patient has a lengthy history of schizophrenia, paranoid type, since 17 years of age, and has been hospitalized in this fashion no less than 25 times since the onset of his illness began. These recurrent hospitalizations have mostly been due to his refusal to take medications upon discharge. Currently, he is refusing to take medication on the unit, when it is offered to him by nursing staff.
Which of the following would currently be good choices of medication for this patient, on the inpatient unit? (pick 2 of 6)
6. If the patient is given Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) biweekly intramuscular injection and is well stabilized in the hospital on this agent, which of the following would be the best discharge disposition for him for ongoing treatment and care once he is ready to leave the acute inpatient psychiatry unit? (choose 3 of 7)
A State psychiatric inpatient facility (long-term admission)
B Assertive community treatment team (ACT team) home visits
C Partial hospital program
D Continuing day treatment program
E Outpatient mental health department of a university/teaching hospital
F Outpatient freestanding mental health clinic
G Mental health practitioner in the patient’s primary care physician’s group practice
Robert Bradbury is a 30-year-old male with a history of chronic paranoid schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine. He goes to an outpatient psychiatry appointment and has the following discussion with his psychiatrist.
Doctor: How are things going Robert?
Robert: Fine. I’ve been working in the afternoons following my program and it’s going very well. I’m continuing to drool a lot, like I told you last time, but its manageable.
Doctor: How are your symptoms? Are you hearing any voices?
Robert: No. I haven’t heard voices in about a year now. I’m really glad about that (smiles).
Doctor: Good. Good. Tell me about this job you’ve been doing.
Robert: Well I’m doing a patient work program through the hospital. We move furniture, run errands, deliver mail within the hospital. Stuff like that.
Doctor: Do you like it?
Robert: I do, but there is this one woman that I work with who is so nasty (frowns). She talks down to the patient workers like she’s better than us or as if we’re not as good as other people. It gets me upset sometimes.
Doctor: How do you handle it?
Robert: My boss tells me just to ignore her, that it’s her problem, not mine, and that she’s not worth getting upset over.
Doctor: Are you able to do that?
Robert: Yeah. If she says something nasty I just walk away. I try not to let it bother me as much as it used to. There are plenty of people at work who are friendly so it doesn’t matter.
Doctor: Good. I like your attitude about this. Sounds like you’re handling it well.
Robert: Thanks. Oh, before we finish I need a refill on my clozapine. I went for bloodwork two days ago.
The next seven questions are regarding Robert’s mental status exam:
1. Robert’s attitude is best described as: (choose 2 of 6)
2. Robert’s affect is best described as:
B Within normal range
3. Robert’s thought process is best described as: (choose 2 of 6)
A Flight of ideas
E Goal directed
F Thought blocking
4. Robert’s impulse control is best described as:
5. Robert’s insight is best described as:
6. Robert’s judgment is best described as:
7. Robert’s perceptions are best described as:
A No auditory hallucinations
B No visual hallucinations
C No olfactory hallucinations
D No tactile hallucinations
E No gustatory hallucinations
8. What is the best feedback the doctor can give Robert about his excessive drooling?
A It is expected. We should continue to follow it.
B It will go away once his dose of clozapine is increased
C It is a clear indication to stop the medication
D It is most likely unrelated to his medications
9. If Robert is on clozapine for 8 months, how often should he have his WBC/ANC drawn?
A Every month
B Every week
C Every two weeks
D Every two months
10. In addition to monitoring Robert’s WBC/ANC which other tests would be appropriate to monitor on Robert over time? (choose 7 of 8)
B Liver function tests
C Clozapine level
D Fasting glucose
F Waist circumference
G Triglycerides and cholesterol
A woman of 35 years of age presents to the emergency room in a state of acute anxiety and agitation. After administration of an intramuscular injection of 2 mg of lorazepam, she calms down a bit and is able to give you more of her history. For the past 10 years, she has been functioning as a bank teller and lives alone in a studio apartment and is self-sufficient. She reports that for the past decade she has felt that she is not one person, but three different persons. She feels that her self-states take over her being whenever she is in an extremely stressful situation. When asked about her parents and youth, she closes her eyes and begins to talk in a more youthful voice stating “I have to run away. I can’t be home when papa gets here.” She seems distant as if in a trance. When she finally comes to her senses, she admits that she was repeatedly beaten and raped from ages 5 to 11 years by her step-father. She admits to flashbacks and excessive easiness to startle and these symptoms persist even now in her. She states that this child-like voice is that of “Melanie” one of her self-states, who comes out when she is under stress at work or in her relationships with men. She denies suicidal or homicidal ideation. She denies experiencing auditory or visual hallucinations, past or present. No delusions or ideas of reference are noted. She is much calmer now in the emergency room after your intervention with her.
1. Which of the following clinical features of this patient’s disorder are correct? (pick 2 of 6)
A Clinical studies report female to male ratios of up to 10 to 1 in diagnosed cases
B Fifteen percent of cases are associated with childhood trauma and maltreatment
C Psychotherapies of choice include dynamic, cognitive and hypnotherapy
D Studies have shown a strong genetic component to the disorder
E Inability to recall important personal information is not part of this disorder
F About 10% of patients also meet criteria for somatization disorder
2. Which of the following would be expected to worsen the prognosis of this patient’s disorder?
A Concomitant diabetes and hypertension
B Concomitant eating disorder
C Recommending clonazepam for anxiety symptoms
D The patient forcing herself to maintain a high level of daily functioning despite having serious symptoms
E Group therapy for patients with the same disorder only
F Past traumatic brain injury from a motor vehicle accident
3. Which one of the following is not a recommended pharmacologic choice for this patient’s disorder?
C Divalproex sodium
D Lithium carbonate
4. Which of the following symptoms is not typically seen in this patient’s disorder?
A Seizure-like episodes
B Survivor guilt
C Suicidal thoughts
D Asthma and breathing problems
E Manic episodes
5. Which of the following would help you rule out a factitious or malingered disorder in this patient’s case? (pick 2 of 6)
A Marked inconsistencies in her story and symptom presentation
B The patient prevents you from speaking to collaterals
C Marked dysphoria about her symptoms
D A significant history of legal problems
E Feeling confused and ashamed about her symptoms
F A history of poor work performance by the patient
Kevin Moran is a 75-year-old man who is brought to your office by his 38-year-old daughter Susan for a consultation. Mr. Moran has not been himself for at least a year his daughter states. He lost his wife to cancer 18 months ago and they were married for 50 years. Susan tells you that her father cannot live on his own anymore and she had to take him into her home where she has a spare bedroom for him. The reason for his inability to live independently is because he gets easily confused, forgetful, loses his sense of direction and starts to wander alone in the street with no purpose. The police brought him home once after they found him wandering in his neighborhood late at night and the poor man couldn’t find his way home. Luckily he was able to remember his own name and his daughter’s name, which helped police to trace him back to her home. Susan says her father cannot really cook or clean for himself because he forgets that he leaves the stove on and burns pots and pans which could result in a severe fire hazard. He can eat, but he forgets the names of common household items like forks and cups, and sometimes even forgets what they are used for.
His medical history is significant for coronary artery disease since age 68, hypertension controlled on medication, type II diabetes for which he takes oral medications only and a small stroke a few years ago for which he has been given aspirin. He also has high serum cholesterol and elevated serum triglycerides.
1. Given his history, the most likely diagnosis is: (pick 2 of 6)
A Major depressive disorder
B Generalized anxiety disorder
C Vascular dementia
D Diffuse Lewy body disease
E Alzheimer’s dementia
F Pick’s disease
2. What would be your next maneuver with respect to this patient in the outpatient setting? (pick 3 of 7)
A Start sertraline 25 mg daily
B Start trazodone 50 mg at bedtime
C Start donepezil 5 mg daily
D Obtain an electroencephalogram
E Start risperidone 0.25 mg at bedtime
F Obtain an outpatient brain MRI
G Obtain neuropsychological consultation
3. His daughter is concerned that she cannot manage her father properly in the home. What suggestions can you make to help her with this situation? (pick 3 of 6)
A Refer him to an ACT team for ongoing management
B Obtain a visiting-nurse consultation
C Refer her to caregiver support programming and groups
D Convince her to get family members to provide coverage in the home to monitor the patient more closely
E Consult a physiatrist to have the patient placed in a subacute rehabilitation facility
F Seek skilled nursing facility or assisted-living facility placement for the patient
4. If the patient has a dementia of the Alzheimer type, what would be his expected prognosis if he were to remain untreated?
A 1 to 3 years
B 4 to 6 years
C 7 to 10 years
D 11 to 15 years
E 15 to 20 years
5. The treatment of choice for a case of dementia believed to have features of both Alzheimer and vascular type would be: (pick 3 of 7)
A An antiplatelet aggregant agent
B An atypical antipsychotic agent
C A sedative–hypnotic anxiolytic agent
D A cholinesterase inhibiting agent
E Vitamin B complex supplementation
F An antidepressant agent
G An antihypertensive agent
6. Which of the following is not typically a complication of this man’s illness?
A Agitation and sundowning
B Personality changes
D Hallucinations and delusions
7. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient? (pick 2 of 7)
Wanda Reardon is a 55-year-old woman who is hospitalized for acute relapse of a multiple sclerosis flare up. She has had the disease for 25 years and it has been classified as relapsing and remitting in variety. You are called to her bedside because she is in an acute confusional state. Upon admission to the hospital yesterday, her neurologist started her on intravenous methylprednisolone and omeprazole for the MS exacerbation. Her history reveals that she is a former cigarette smoker who quit 10 years ago. She also has a history of hypertension and gastritis. Her medications at home include enalapril, lansoprazole and interferon β1A (Avonex) weekly injections for her multiple sclerosis.
When you arrive at the bedside to examine Wanda after reviewing her chart, you find that she is unable to attend to you or your questions. She is talkative, but what she says makes no grammatical or logical sense. Her eyes are rolling back in her head and her eyelids are drooping frequently during your interaction with her. She is rocking side to side in her bed in a hyperactive manner. She is unable to engage you or answer any of your questions appropriately. She is disoriented to time, place and person. When you call her name, she is able to look at you briefly, but her attention wanes and in a brief moment she looks away and is unable to respond further to you. Her rocking behavior is quite severe and you fear that she may fall out of her bed, despite the fact that her bed rails are up.
1. Which of the following symptoms are not generally characteristic of Wanda’s present syndrome? (pick 2 of 6)
A Mood stability
C Sleep–wake cycle disturbance
D Language disturbance
E Gradual onset over weeks to months
F Memory impairment
2. Which of the following risk factors predispose this patient to the current condition you now find her in? (Pick 3 of 6)
A Smoking history
B Female gender
C Her age
D Her current medications
E Her multiple sclerosis
3. The CNS area(s) believed to be most closely implicated in this patient’s present condition is (are) the:
B Frontal and parietal lobes
C Midbrain and nigrostriatal pathway
D Reticular formation and dorsal tegmental pathway
E Hippocampus and amygdala
4. Which of the following neurotransmitters is probably the least likely to be implicated in the pathophysiology of delirium?
5. Which of the following electroencephalography findings would you expect to find in this patient?
A Temporal lobe spikes
C Generalized background slowing
D Triphasic waves
E Periodic lateralizing epileptiform discharges (PLEDS)
6. Which of the following agents would not be appropriate treatment for Wanda’s current condition? (pick 2 of 6)
7. Which of the following are true about the course and prognosis of delirium? (pick 3 of 6)
A Prodromal symptoms can occur months prior to onset of florid symptoms
B Symptoms usually persist as long as causally relevant factors are present
C Delirium usually progresses to dementia according to longitudinal studies
D Delirium does not adversely affect mortality in patients who develop it
E Prognosis of delirium worsens with increased patient age and longer duration of the episode
F Periods of delirium are sometimes followed by depression or post-traumatic stress disorder
Allan Newbold is a 30-year-old man who consults you at your private office for anxiety. He describes his anxiety as an excessive preoccupation with his appearance. He is always worried that he isn’t attractive enough to the opposite sex. He has no medical or surgical history at all. He has never seen a psychiatrist before. He denies depression, but he is very upset because he always feels his body could be better. He exercises twice a day and has a physique that is similar to most fit models or competitive bodybuilders. You ask him to identify his specific shortcomings and he tells you that his skin doesn’t tan evenly so he has to resort to artificial spray-on tans which “look fake” he says. He also feels that his body has hair in the “wrong places” and “I always have to go to the laser hair removal salon or get it waxed off. Even then, there’s always some left over.” He also feels that because he is a natural bodybuilder who doesn’t use artificial means of building muscle, like steroids, that his muscles are unable to develop evenly and symmetrically. He opens his shirt and shows you his bare chest pointing out to you how his abdominal muscles are uneven and lumpy and asymmetrical. To your eye and superficial glance, they look perfectly normal and you tell him so. He replies: “Of course you think they’re normal! Everyone I ask tells me they’re normal, but I know they’re just lying to me.”
Allan tells you he is actually a physical therapist by training, “I love my job because I work with kids mostly and help them in ways that no one else really can.” He also reveals that he does TV and magazine modeling on the side and has even posed nude in Playgirl magazine. He was named “man of the year” for that publication a few years back. He tells you he is heterosexual and has a girlfriend, Eve Chandler, who is a 24-year-old fitness model and hedge fund associate. He tells you that his sex life and sexual functioning “are fantastic! No problems there!” When you ask if Eve thinks his body has imperfections, he says “She tells me it’s all in my head and that my body rocks, but I know she’s only saying it to be kind to me!” He spends a huge amount of time and effort at esthetic salons, tanning salons, and with the dermatologist, looking for creams, lotions, injectables, and any other procedures that he feels might enhance his appearance. He spends at least $2000 a month on such products and services.
1. The basic pathophysiology of the disorder that Allan is suffering from is believed to be related to:
2. The psychodynamic explanation of Allan’s disorder and behavior is best described as:
A Early parental losses that lead to a self-focused neurosis
B Acting out behavior due to poor impulse control and poor frustration tolerance
C The displacement of a sexual or emotional conflict onto nonrelated body parts
D Arrested development in the anal phase of psychosexual development
E An unresolved oedipal complex
3. Which of the following factors are atypical of Allan’s most likely diagnosis? (pick 2 of 6)
A The fact that he is man
B The fact that the onset of his disorder presented prior to 30 years of age
C The fact that Allan has never suffered a major depressive episode in the past
D The fact that Allan is unmarried
E The fact that Allan is a professional and is high-functioning
F The fact that Allan spends an extraordinary amount of money on himself
4. Which of the following are considered appropriate treatments for Allan’s primary disorder? (pick 3 of 6)
5. Which of the following is typically true about the course and prognosis of Allan’s primary disorder?
A It is usually gradual and insidious in onset
B It is usually of short duration and self-limited
C It has an undulating course with few symptom-free intervals
D The part of the body on which concern is focused typically remains the same over time
E The preoccupation with imagined defects is not usually associated with significant distress or impairment
Grace Hanover is a 50-year-old woman who is referred to you by her primary care physician. He has no clue what’s going on with Grace medically, because she comes for follow-up every single month with a new physical complaint despite the fact that he has told her so many times that there is nothing that he can find that’s wrong with her. Her physician tells you that Grace indeed does suffer from hypertension and hyperlipidemia for the past 3 years, but that she has been taking enalapril and simvastatin daily since then, which have normalized her blood pressure and serum lipid levels quite nicely. He tells you that her many complaints have been going on since he has known her, which is 20 years now, but he knows that these complaints predated her being his patient.
You ask her physician what symptoms she presents with and he runs off a ridiculously long shopping list that is overwhelming and implausible. Her biggest (and longest complaint) is sexual dysfunction on the order of low libido, poor sexual arousal, inability to orgasm either through masturbation or intercourse. This has been going on for 20 years, or even more. Gynecologic consultations have been multiple over the years and testing has never revealed any organic cause to these problems.
Over the years she has complained of gastrointestinal discomfort after eating, though not all the time, periodic dizziness and feeling weak in her legs for no particular reason, generalized body aches and pains, particularly in her neck, lower back, arms and legs, and chronic constipation despite drinking plenty of water every day and eating a very well-balanced diet.
Her physician says: “She’s just weird, and I never know what she’s going to come up with next when she comes to the office. I think it’s all in her head, but I’m not sure. I think her insurance company must hate her, because with all the tests she’s undergone over the past 20 years (and all of them were negative!), it must have cost them hundreds of thousands of dollars!”
Grace works in public relations and has a six-figure salary job. She is rarely absent from work, despite her many physical problems. She has never been married and has no children. She was an only child and was doted on by her father, while her mother was actually the breadwinner in the household and was more distant with Grace. Grace has no psychiatric history to speak of. She denies depression, mania, and psychosis. She does have some anxiety, but denies panic attacks or social phobia.
1. Which of the following symptoms would push your differential diagnosis away from a conversion disorder in Grace’s case? (pick 3 of 7)
F Gastrointestinal discomfort
G Arm and leg pain
2. Which of the following etiological theories are believed to be possible contributors to Grace’s primary problem? (pick 3 of 6)
A Abnormal regulation of the cytokine system
B Only personality disordered patients have Grace’s disorder
C Decreased metabolism in the frontal lobes and nondominant hemisphere
D Apoptosis and gliosis of brainstem neurons
E Catecholaminergic deficits or imbalance in the central nervous system
F Genetic predisposition of the disorder in first-degree female relatives of probands of patients with Grace’s disorder
3. Which of the following statements about the epidemiology of Grace’s primary disorder are not true? (pick 3 of 6)
A Men outnumber women with the disorder about 5 to 20 times
B The lifetime prevalence of somatization disorder among woman is about 1 to 2%
C The disorder occurs more frequently in patients of upper class and higher socioeconomic status
D The disorder usually begins in adulthood after the age of 30
E Concomitant personality traits associated with somatization disorder include obsessive–compulsive, paranoid and avoidant features
F Bipolar I disorder and substance abuse occur no more frequently in somatization disorder patients than in the general population at large
4. Which of the following facts are true about the course and prognosis of Grace’s primary disorder? (pick 3 of 6)
A The course of the disorder is typical acute and static in its presentation
B Patients with the disorder have a 20% chance of being diagnosed with this disorder 5 years later
C Patients with the disorder are no more likely to develop another medical illness in the next 20 years than people without the disorder
D The disease rarely remits completely
E It is unusual for a patient with the disorder to be free of symptoms for greater than one year
F The overall prognosis of the disorder is good to excellent in most cases
5. The only treatment maneuver for Grace’s primary disorder that seems to be able to decrease personal health care expenditure by about 50% is:
A Atypical antipsychotics
B Antidepressant medications
C Electroshock therapy
D Group and individual psychotherapy
E Mood stabilizers like lithium and divalproex sodium
F Opioid antagonists like naltrexone
Kerry Fields is a 26-year-old man who comes to you because he is an extreme athlete and is addicted to opioid painkillers. He skis, snowboards, drives motocross motorcycles and all-terrain vehicles, and knows only too well how to abuse his body from all this physical activity. He has had a shoulder surgery for severe rotator cuff tear, and at least three knee surgeries on each knee for meniscal tears and repairs. He also has spinal scoliosis and has herniated two cervical and three lumbar intervertebral disks in the past. He has never undergone back surgery, though he has been used to living with chronic pain.
He tells you his problem is balancing pain with narcotic overuse. He is currently taking Roxicodone 30 mg daily two tablets QID and they are barely keeping him stable. He confesses to you that he also drinks every night, at least two or three vodkas with soda and sometimes more. He also smokes cannabis about an ounce a week on average. He tells you his back pain, neck pain, and knee pain is typically a 7 out of 10 most days, unless he is doing some extreme sporting activity or other, when his pain can climb to 9 out of 10, after the activity is over. He wants help from you and your honest recommendations.
1. Which of the following would be good recommendations for treating Kerry’s problems? (pick 3of 6)
A Go to an inpatient facility for alcohol, narcotic and cannabis detoxification
B Do an outpatient narcotic taper and switch Kerry to a Vivitrol (naltrexone) monthly injection
C Send Kerry to a specialized pain clinic for appropriate recommendations and management
D Continue the Roxicodone as prescribed for pain and give Kerry disulfiram (Antabuse) for alcohol relapse prevention
E Send Kerry for orthopedic and neurologic consultation to determine the etiology of his pain
F Consider a switch from Roxicodone to oral methadone to address both pain and narcotic dependence, along with acamprosate calcium to address alcohol relapse prevention
2. What is the correct dosing strategy if Kerry is going to begin taking disulfiram?
A 500 mg once daily
B 250 mg once daily
C Start 500 mg once daily for 1 to 2 weeks, then reduce to 250 mg daily for maintenance
D Start 250 mg once daily for 1 to 2 weeks, then increase to 500 mg daily for maintenance
E 500 mg twice a day
3. What are the disadvantages of buprenorphine/naloxone tablets for opioid relapse prevention in Kerry’s case? (pick 3 of 6)
A The naloxone content of the tablet may trigger a precipitated withdrawal on its own
B Buprenorphine/naloxone tablets cannot be taken with full opioid agonist painkillers
C Buprenorphine/naloxone tablets are generally not as effective as full opioid agonist painkillers for the management of moderate to severe chronic pain
D Buprenorphine/naloxone tablets can easily be diverted and injected for recreational purposes by intravenous drug users
E Buprenorphine/naloxone tablets must be taken under the tongue and patients frequently complain that they have a bad taste
F Buprenorphine/naloxone tablets can be abused and overused for its euphoric effects by recreational narcotic users who take excessive quantities of this medication
4. Which of the following agents decrease serum methadone levels?
B St. John’s Wort (hypericum)
5. Which of the following substances of abuse causes a withdrawal syndrome when stopped abruptly that manifests with insomnia, irritability, drug craving, restlessness, nervousness, depressed mood, tremor, malaise, myalgia, and increased sweating?
C Phencyclidine (PCP)